Sunday, January 25, 2015

Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge Practice Questions

1. Catalogues, mailings, telemarketing etc can be classified as:
1) Advertising
2) Sales promotion
3) Public relation
4) Direct marketing
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is a function of Packaging?
1) Protection
2) Promotion
3) Convenience
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

3. Which of the following is not a level of product?
1) Core
2) Augmented
3) Potential
4) Fragmented
5) None of the above

4. A Brand or part of the Brand which is legally protected is called as ___
1) Trade Mark
2) Brand Equity
3) Brand Name
4) Brand Valuation
5) None of the above

5. Which of the following is related to Brand Name?
1) Term
2) Words
3) Letters
4) Both 2 & 3
5) None of the above

6. Introduction, Growth ___ & ___ are the four stages of Product Life Cycle.
1) Maturity, Saturation
2) Maturity, Decline
3) Decline, Maturity
4) Saturation, Maturity
5) None of the above

7. A pure tangible good:
1) Bread
2) Milk
3) Books
4) Biscuits
5) All of the above

8. A stage in New Product Development:
1) Idea generation/ Screening
2) Business analysis
3) Developing & testing the product
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

9. ______ may favour buying a Product which is in its decline stage.
1) Innovators
2) Middle majority
3) Dare-devils
4) Laggards
5) None of the above

10. Low-price and high promotional spending is likely to succeed in _____markets.
1) Large
2) Small
3) International
4) Local
5) National

11. Which of the following are not the levels of the product under the customer value hierarchy?
1) Core benefit
2) Expected product
3) Augmented product
4) Potential product
5) None of these

12. Which of the following is not an element of MIS (Marketing Information System)?
1) Marketing Research
2) Decision Support System
3) Production Monitoring System
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

13. Price determination depends on:
1) Market demand for the product/ service
2) Perceived value of the product/ service
3) Buyer Psychology
4) Government Policy
5) Any of the above

14. A seller offering to the buyers, a range of products, is called __
1) Product Mix
2) Product lines
3) Product item
4) Potential product
5) None of these

15. A person who acts on behalf of some other person to sell a product/ service is known as ____
1) Principal
2) Dinar
3) Labour
4) Agent
5) Middleman

16. _____ has the advantage of being high in selectivity; low cost, immediacy and interactive
1) Direct mail
2) Outdoor
3) Online
4) Radio
5) None of these

17. The general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means:
1) Internet commerce
2) Web commerce
3) Computer commerce
4) Electronic commerce
5) None of these

18. When producers, wholesalers and retailers are in a unified system, they comprise a ___
1) Conventional marketing system
2) Power-based marketing system
3) Horizontal marketing system
4) Vertical marketing system
5) None of these

19. The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market:
1) Undifferentiated marketing
2) Differentiated marketing
3) Concentrated marketing
4) Turbo marketing
5) None of the above

20. Which of the following is not a transmission medium?
1) Telephone lines
2) Coaxial cables
3) Modem
4) Microwave systems
5) Hardware systems

21. Identify the IP address from the following:
1) 300.215.317.3
2) 302.215@417.5
4) 202-50-20-148
5) 101.50. 2 0.148

22. Memory which can be read only is called ____.
1) RAM
2) Secondary Memory
4) Dynamic Memory
5) ROM

23. Another name of endless loop:
1) Data traffic pattern
2) Data loop
3) Infinite loop
4) Feedback loop
5) Slot

24. Most popular hardware for multimedia creations:
1) PCs
2) Minicomputers
3) Mainframe Computers
4) WANs
5) Super Computers

25. The _____ settings are automatic and standard.
1) Default
2) CPU
3) Peripheral
4) User-friendly
5) None of the above

26. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system?
1) Language translator
2) Platform
3) User interface
4) Icon
5) None

27. The ___ folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
1) Drafts
2) Outbox
3) Address Book
4) Sent Items
5) Inbox

28. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as:
1) An ASCII code
2) A magnetic tape
3) An OCR scanner
4) A bar code
5) None of these

29. A collaborative network that uses Internet Technology to link business with their suppliers is?
1) Internet
2) Intranet
3) Extranet
4) WAN
5) LAN

30. A passive threat to computer security:
1) Malicious Intent
2) Sabotage
3) Accidental Errors
4) Espionage Agents
5) None of these

31. Which of the following is not a worksheet design criterion?
1) Efficiency
2) Adaptability
3) Description
4) Clarity
5) Capacity

32. A micro program is sequencer perform the operation:
1) Read
2) Write
3) Execute
4) Read and execute
5) Read and write

33. In Ms-Dos what command you will use to display system date?
1) Date
2) Ver
3) Disk
4) Format
5) Edit

34. Personnel, who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to:
1) Console-operator
2) Programmer
3) People ware
4) System Analyst
5) Tester

35. The batch file uses the extension:
1) .BAT
2) .DOC
3) .PRG
4) .DOS
5) .DOEX

36. Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communication needs?
1) Front end processor
2) Multiplexer
3) Controller
4) Concentrator
5) All of the above

37. Data warehousing is a system of storing data on long term basis (say 5-10 years). It is ____:
1) Customer oriented and integrated
2) Non-volatile and time variant
3) Devoid of inconsistencies
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

38. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ___
1) Sorting
2) Merging
3) Inserting
4) Deleting
5) Traversal

39. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data.
1) 1.40 MB
2) 1.44 GB
3) 1.40 GB
4) 1.44 MB
5) 1.80 MB

40. The output quality of a printer is measured by:
1) Dot per sq. inch
2) Dot per inch
3) Dots printed per unit time
4) Dot per half inch
5) All of the above

1) 4, 2) 4, 3) 4, 4) 1, 5) 4, 6) 2, 7) 5, 8) 4, 9) 4, 10) 1,
11) 5, 12) 5, 13) 5, 14) 1, 15) 4, 16) 3, 17) 4, 18) 4,  19) 3,  20) 3,
21) 3,  22) 5,  23) 3,  24) 1,  25) 1, 26) 3,  27) 2,  28) 4,  29) 3, 30) 3
31) 3,  32) 4,  33) 1, 34) 3,  35) 1, 36) 5, 37) 4, 38) 5, 39) 4, 40) 2

Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge Practice Questions for Bank Exams

1. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
1) They are collections of data
2) Every file has a filename
3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate computer on which it was created
4) All files contain data
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
1) Word
2) Printer
3) Monitor
4) Mouse
5) Scanner

3. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
1) Keyboard
2) Disk
3) ALU
4) Mouse
5) Printer

4. The result of a formula in a cell is the ......
1) label
2) value
3) range
4) displayed value
5) None of these

5. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
1) hard disk
2) flash drive
3) DVD
4) CD
5) monitor

6. Choose the odd one out ............
1) Micro Computer
2) Minicomputer
3) Super Computer
4) Notebook Computer
5) Digital Computer

7. The ALU performs ................ operations.
1) logic
3) algorithm-based
4) logarithm-based
5) final operations

8. ............ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.
1) OS
2) ALU
3) CPU
4) Memory
5) Printer

9. In a sequence of events that takes place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is ......
1) Story cycle
2) Execute cycle
3) Fetch cycle
4) Decode cycle
5) Code cycle

10. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be ............
1) hardware
2) software
3) data
4) information
5) None of these

11. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?
1) function
2) line
3) pie
4) bar
5) None

12. To see the document before the printout is taken, use ............
1) Insert Table
2) Paste
3) Format Painter
4) Cut
5) Print Preview

13. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the ...........
1) Notebook
2) Registers
3) Copy Pad
4) I/O devices
5) None of these

14. To move data from one part of the document to another, following is used .............
1) Cut and Paste
2) Copy and Paste
3) Cut and Delete
4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert

15. Another name for a pre-programmed formula in Excel is ...............
1) range
2) graph
3) function
4) cell
5) None of these

16. To save a document for the first time, ................ option is used
1) Save as
2) Save first
3) Save on
4) Copy
5) Paste

17. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?
1) mouse
2) printer
3) joystick
4) keyboard
5) scanner

18. Two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000 are .........
1) Auto shapes and Clip Art
2) Header and Footer
3) Drawing Objects and Pictures
4) Spelling and Grammer
5) Word Count

19. User can use .......... commands to search for and correct words in a document.
1) Print and Print Preview
2) Header and Footer
3) Find and Replace
4) Spelling and Grammer
5) Copy and Paste

20. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?
1) HTML is very easy to use
2) The document can be displayed by all word processors
3) The document can be displayed by all programs
4) The document can be displayed by all browsers
5) None of these

21. Which of the following is not correct with regard to Marketing?
1) Marketing is a management function
2) Marketing is a philosophy
3) Marketing is not related to business activity alone
4) Marketing means selling.
5) Objective of marketing is to achieve customer satisfaction.

22. Consumer may be defined as one who buys...
1) Goods
2) Services
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
5) None

23. Which of the following is a part of Marketing Management?
1) Identification of Bbusiness opportunities
2) Understanding the customer needs
3) Producing according to customer needs
4) Delivering as per customer convenience
5) All the above

24. ............. describes changes in an individual's behaviour arising from experience.
1) Modeling
2) Motivation
3) Perception
4) Learning
5) None of the above

25. Below are the four alternatives showing stages of a consumer in arriving at a decision to purchase or reject a new product. Arrange them order wise.
a) Interest
b) Trail
c) Awareness
d) Evaluations
1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
3) (c), (a), (b), (d)
4) (a), (d), (b), (c)
5) None of these

26. If a company's objective were to reach masses of buyers that were geographically dispersed at a low cost per low cost per exposure, the company would likely choose which of the following promotion forms?
1) Advertising
2) Personal selling
3) Public relations
4) Sales promotion
5) None of the above

27. Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavours, forms, colours, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called a(n):
1) Line extension
2) Brand extension
3) Multibranding
4) New brands
5) None of these

28. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
1) Idea
2) Demand
3) Product
4) Service
5) None of these

29. If Surf − Excel is three pack sizes of 200 grams, 500 grams, 1 kg and are available in two types of packages. What is the product depth:
1) Two
2) Three
3) Six
4) Eight
5) Nine

30. ............. is the general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means.
1) Internet commerce
2) Web commerce
3) Computer commerce
4) Electronic commerce
5) None of the above

31. When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand strategies?
1) Product extension
2) Line extension
3) Market targeting
4) Market positioning
5) None of the above

32. In terms of special product life cycles, a .......... is a basic and distinctive mode of expression.
1) Genre
2) Style
3) Fashion
4) Fad
5) None of the above

33. ........ consists of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs, characteristics or behaviour who might require separate products or marketing mixes.
1) Product differentiation
2) Market segmentation
3) Market targeting
4) Market positioning
5) None of the above

34. ......... is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
1) Mass Marketing
2) Market Segmentation
3) Market Targeting
4) Market Positioning
5) None of the above

35. ....... factors are the most popular bases for segmenting customer groups.
1) Geographic
2) Demographic
3) Psychographic
4) Behavioural
5) None

36. When an international seller sells a plant, equipment, or technology to another country and agrees to take payment in the resulting products, it is called .........
1) Barter
2) Buy - back
3) Counter purchase
4) Like-value exchange
5) None of these

37. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trial is the:
1) Decline stage
2) Introducing stage
3) Growth stage
4) Maturity stage
5) None

38. A ...... is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move the product through channels.
1) Push strategy
2) Pull strategy
3) Blocking strategy
4) Integrated strategy
5) None of these

39. A(n) ...... is a retail store that carries a narrow product line with a deep assortment within that line.
1) Shopping goods store
2) Convenience store
3) Speciality store
4) Department store
5) None of these

40. The term "Globalization" means .......
1) Opening the economy for world trade
2) Closing the economy
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 or 2
5) None of these

1-3, 2-1, 3-2, 4-2, 5-5, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-3, 10-1
11-3, 12-5, 13-2, 14-1, 15-3, 16-1, 17-5, 18-1, 19-4, 20-1
21-4, 22-5, 23-5, 24-4, 25-2, 26-1, 27-1, 28-3, 29-3, 30-4
31-4, 32-2, 33-2, 34-3, 35-2, 36-3, 37-2, 38-1, 39-3, 40-1


1. The term marketing refers to:
a) New product concepts and improvements
b) Advertising and promotion activities
c) A philosophy that stresses more on customer value and satisfaction
d) Planning sales campaigns
e) None of these

2. In the history of marketing, when did the production period end?
a) In the late 1800s
b) In the early 1900s
c) In the 1920s
d) After the end of the Second World War
e) None of these

3. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase 'a stronger focus on social and ethical concerns in marketing' is characteristic of the ____ period.
a) production
b) sales
c) marketing
d) societal marketing
e) None of these

4. Which skills and capabilities will marketers need to increasingly have?
a) Market research
b) Digital and social media marketing
c) Strategic marketing
d) Sales
e) None of these

5. Which of the following is not part of the external marketing environment?
a) Political
b) Legal
c) Product
d) Socio-cultural
e) None of these

6. Tobacco advertising is now virtually banned in all marketing communication forms in many countries around the world. This can be explained as an influence of:
a) Technological environment
b) Legal environment
c) Economic environment
d) Ecological environment
e) None of these

7. Afirm has decided to alter its pricing and promotional strategies in response to slower than expected job growth and declining personal incomes. The firm is responding to changes in it's:
a) Socio-cultural environment
b) Political environment
c) Economic environment
d) Competitive environment
e) None of these

8. The process of collecting information about the external marketing environment is:
a) Environmental management
b) Environmental scanning
c) Marketing management
d) Marketing research
e) None of these

9. Which is NOT classified in buy classes?
a) New task
b) Information gathering
c) Modified re-buy
d) Straight re-buy
e) None of these

10. With respect to consumer behaviour, one's friends and relatives could be considered a/an:
a) Impersonal influence
b) Reference group influence
c) Perceptual influence
d) Institutional influence
e) None of these

11. Which of the following is not part of the consumer proposition acquisition process?
a) Motive development
b) Information gathering
c) Proposition evaluation
d) Perception
e) None of these

12. The purchasing department reorders on a routine basis, very often working from an approved list of suppliers. This is referred to as:
a) Straight re-buy
b) New task
c) Modified re-buy
d) Routine buying
e) None of these

13. Which sampling techniques are often selected in qualitative research?
a) Non-probability sampling
b) Probability sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Random sampling
e) None of these

14. What is the term used to describe the degree to which the data elicited in a study is replicated in a repeat study?
a) Replication
b) Pre-code
c) Reliability
d) Convenience
e) None of these

15. One thing that is usually true of focus groups is that:
a) Most groups involve a small number of participants
b) They usually average 5 to 10 minutes in length
c) The moderator's job is to keep the group busy for the entire time and not let anyone leave
d) The questions used are highly structured and response-driven
e) None of these

16. Which type of research methods are designed to elicit responses to predetermined, standardized questions from a large number of respondents?
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Non-probability
d) Probability
e) None of these

17. The ____ process commences at corporate level. Here the organization sets out its overall mission, purpose and values.
a) researching
b) strategic planning
c) controlling
d) managing
e) None of these

18. A statement about what an organization wants to become, which sets out an organization's future, is referred to as:
a) Mission
b) Values
c) Organizational goals
d) Vision
e) None of these

19. Astatement that sets out what the organization wishes to achieve in the long term is referred to as:
a) Mission
b) Vision
c) Values
d) Strategic context
e) None of these

20. Organizational values are important because they ___.
a) help shape mission statements
b) help increase sales
c) help guide behaviour and the recruitment and selection decisions
d) help define market research
e) None of these

21. A commonly used basis for segmenting consumer markets:
a) Organizational size
b) Demographics
c) Product type
d) Price
e) None of these

22. Which of the following is not an example of a behavioural variable?
a) Product usage
b) Media usage
c) Purchase occasion
d) Personality
e) None of these

23. ACORN, a segmentation analysis technique, stands for which of the following?
a) A Corresponding Official Residential Notation
b) A Classification of Reported Nationals
c) A Classification of Residential Neighbourhood
d) A Countrywide Official Resources Navigation
e) None of these

24. The family life cycle:
a) is a way to apply psychographic segmentation
b) refers to the process of family formation and dissolution
c) provides insights into the relationships among age, occupation, income and housing
d) is composed of the 11 stages of personal growth from infancy to retirement
e) None of these

25. Offerings move through a sequential, pre-determined pattern of development similar to the biological path that life forms follow. This is the concept of:
a) Process of diffusion
b) New product development
c) Product life cycle
d) Brand management
e) None of these

26. Which of the following is NOT a service innovation strategy?
a) Branded service innovation
b) Established service innovation
c) Incremental service innovation
d) Radical service innovation
e) None of these

27. ____ is concerned with value creation generated through novel or unusual service concepts.
a) Established service innovation
b) Radical service innovation
c) Generic service innovation
d) Incremental service innovation
e) None of these

28. At the highest end of innovation maturity, firms seek to integrate the services dimension as part of their total offer. This is known as:
a) Servitization
b) Reutilization
c) Diffusion
d) Productization
e) None of these

29. In marketing terms, ____ refers to what we get for what we pay.
a) Revenue
b) Cost
c) Value
d) Product
e) None of these

30. ____ act as cues by indicating to a potential customer that there is a bargain to be had.
a) Odd-number pricing
b) Sale signs
c) Relative price
d) Price surplus
e) None of these

31. ____vary according to the number of units of goods made or services sold.
a) Product assets
b) Price elasticity
c) Fixed costs
d) Variable costs
e) None of these

32. Costs which do not vary according to the number of units of product made or service sold:
a) Fixed costs
b) Moving assets
c) Working capital
d) Fixed capital
e) None of these

33. This is a hierarchy of effects or sequential model used to explain how advertising works:
a) ADD
e) None of these

34. AIDA stands for Awareness, ___, Desire and _____.
a) Interest; Action
b) Intensity; Appeal
c) Involvement; Action
d) Involvement; Appeal
e) None of these

35. Marketing communications is used to achieve one of two principal goals. The first concerns the
development of brand values. What is the other goal?
a) Increasing sales
b) Informing about products
c) Changing the behavior of target audiences
d) Channeling communication tools
e) None of these

36. Sharing of meaning created through the transmission of information:
a) Communication
b) Noise
c) Transfer
d) Understanding
e) None of these

37. Users are able to create content and become more involved with a brand through:
a) Door to door
b) Online communities
c) Direct mail
d) Telemarketing
e) None of these

38. A commercial activity, whereby one party permits another an opportunity to exploit an association with a target audience in return for funds, services or resources is referred to as:
a) Advertising
b) Exchange
c) Sponsorship
d) Public relations
e) None

39. These sell directly to end consumers and may purchase directly from manufacturers and/or deal with wholesalers:
a) Distributors
b) Franchising
c) Merchant
d) Retailers
e) None of these

40. These store goods for moderate to long periods:
a) Storage warehouses
b) Distribution centres
c) Haulage transport
d) Electronic data interchange
e) None of these

1) c; 2) c; 3) d; 4) b; 5) c; 6) b; 7) c; 8) b; 9) b; 10) b;
11) d; 12) a; 13) a; 14) c; 15) a; 16) a; 17) b; 18) d; 19) a; 20) c;
21) b; 22) d; 23) c; 24) b; 25) c; 26) a; 27) b; 28) a; 29) c; 30) b;
31) d; 32) a; 33) b; 34) a; 35) c; 36) a; 37) b; 38) c; 39) d; 40) a.


1. Connectivity is a concept related to
a) Transmitting information, either by computer or by phone
b) The interconnections within a computer
c) Using computer networks to link people and resources
d) Being in an active session with your computer
e) All the above

2. One of the most dramatic changes in connectivity and communications in the past five years has been _______
a) Mobile or wireless telephones
b) public and private discussion
c) Satellite uplinks
d) running programs on remote computers
e) land line phones

3. The four basic elements of any communication system include
a) peer-to-peer, videoconferencing, online photo-conferencing, net optical
b) Sending and receiving devices, communication channel, connection device, and data transmission specifications
c) Telephone lines, coaxial cables, fiber-optic cables, and communication channel
d) Software, hardware, communication channel, network
e) Telephone lines, peer-to-peer, videoconferencing

4. An older type of data communications channel, using multiple copper wires, is called ___ technology.
a) Microwave
b) fiber-optic cable
c) coaxial cable
d) twisted pair
e) wireless

5. A communications channel that is made up of a single copper core with a ground sheath around
it is called a ________.
a) Twisted pair channels
b) microwave
c) coaxial cable
d) fiber-optic cable
e) beam cable

6. Data is transmitted using light through a(n) ________ cable.
a) Twisted pair
b) fiber-optic
c) coaxial
d) microwave
e) all the above

7. Which physical connection is the fastest?
a) Twisted pair
b) coaxial cable
c) fiber-optics
d) microwaves
e) all are equal

8. Communication in a straight line is accomplished using ________.
a) Twisted pairs
b) fiber-optics
c) coaxial cables
d) infrared
e) microwaves

9. Most Web-enabled devices follow a standard known as
a) FireWire
b) Bluetooth
d) Wi-Fi
e) Blue band

10. A relatively new technology that allows wireless connectivity is called ________.
a) Bluetooth
b) Black tooth
c) Blue band
d) Broadband
e) Wi-Fi

11. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about
a) 30 feet
b) 30 yards
c) 30 miles
d) 300 miles
e) 3000 yards

12. The telephone is an example of a(n) ________ signal.
a) analog
b) digital
c) modulated
d) demodulated
e) debug

13. Acredit card-sized expansion board that is inserted into portable computers that connects the modem to the telephone wall jack is the ________.
a) Internal modem
b) External modem
c) PC Card modem
d) Wireless modem
e) Dongle

14. A modem that is contained within the system unit is called a(n) ________ modem.
a) external
b) internal
c) wireless
d) Wi-Fi
e) Cable

15. A modem that doesn't need to be connected to a telephone line is the ________ modem.
a) external
b) internal
c) Broad band
d) DSL
e) wireless

16. Aspecial high-speed line used by large corporations to support digital communications is known as
a) satellite/air connection service lines
b) cable modems
c) Digital subscriber lines
d) T1, T2, T3 and T4 lines
e) All the above

17. An affordable technology that uses existing telephone lines to provide high-speed connections is called ________.
b) microwave
c) cable modem
d) DSL
e) None of these

18. The capacity of a communication channel is measured in
a) Bandwidth
b) bit capacity
c) baud rate
d) data flow
e) baud flow

19. Voice band ________
a) Allows the user to download messages
b) is used for standard telephone communication
c) Is used in special leased lines to connect minicomputers and mainframes
d) Provides a high-speed communication channel
e) All the above

20. The greatest capacity for data transmission happens in ________ devices.
a) Voice band
b) medium band
c) big band
d) mega-band
e) broadband

21. The rules for exchanging data between computers are called
a) Interconnections
b) synchronous packages
c) Protocols
d) data transmission synchronization
e) rolls

22. The standard protocol for the Internet is___
a) TCP
b) IP protocol
c) IP address
e) None

23. ______ is the process of breaking down information sent or transmitted across the Internet into
small parts called packets.
a) Protocol
b) bandwidth
c) reformatting
d) identification
e) calling

24. The systems developed to automatically translate text-based addresses to numeric IP addresses
is called________
a) DSL
b) DNS
c) SNL
d) SDN
e) SOD

25. A computer network must contain at least this number of computers.
a) Two
b) A few
c) Twenty
d) Hundreds
e) Three

26. Two or more computers connected so that they can communicate with each other and share information is called a______
a) Satellite
b) protocol
c) broadcast
d) Wi-Fi
e) network

27. Any device that is connected to a network is called a_______
a) Client
b) node
c) server
d) manager
e) HR

28. A device, connected to a network, that requests resources available from other devices is called a
a) User
b) Server
c) Host
d) NOS
e) Client

29. A device, connected to a network, that shares resources with other nodes is called a________
a) Client
b) server
c) host
d) NOS
e) User

30. The acronym NOS refers to the
a) Operating system on the clients
b) Network order system, or topology
c) Operating system of the network
d) network architecture
e) all the above

1) c 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) c 6) b 7) c 8) d 9) d 10) a
11) a 12) a 13) c 14) b 15) e 16) d 17) d 18) a 19) b 20) e
21) c 22) d 23) c 24) b 25) a 26) e 27) b 28) e 29) b 30) c