Friday, June 29, 2012

Indian Bank 1201 Clerks Recruitment


Indian Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank and among the 19 participating banks of IBPS CWE Exam, with headquarter in Chennai and having geographical presence all over India and abroad invites applications for 1201 Clerical post from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011.

Number of Jobs: 1201 Clerks

Important Dates:
Payment of Application fees : 29.06.2012-13.07.2012
Opening date for Online Registration : 29.06.2012
Last Date for Online Registration : 13.07.2012
(Including for candidates from far-flung areas)

Probation period: 6 months(extendable at the Bank’s discretion).

Age(as on 01.08.2011):Minimum Age: 18 years; Maximum Age: 28 years.

Education Requirements – Candidate should be passed with 50% or more marks in Higher Secondary examination of 10+2 of the 10+2+3 pattern / Intermediate / Pre University or any equivalent examination / Diploma in Banking recognized by Central / State Government or UT Administration.
-For Ex-Servicemen, who do not posses the above qualification, a pass in Service(Departmental) Examination which is recognized as equivalent to Civil Examination not below the level of Matriculation.

Total Weighted Standard Score(TWSS) : Click here for statewise,categorywise cutoff marks.
For General Category: Minimum 24 marks in each section.
For Reserved Category (SC/ST/OBC/PC/EXSM): Minimum 21 marks in each section.

Pay Scale - Rs7,200/-to-Rs19,300/- plus DA, HRA, etc. will be paid as per Bank’s rules.
upon the place of posting.

Application Fees: Rs 20/-(SC/ST/VI/HI/OC) and Rs 100/-(OBC/General and others).

Click here for complete details of number of vacancies,cutoff marks statewise,categorywise etc.
Click here to download payment Challan.

Click here
to apply online for this post.

Thursday, June 28, 2012

INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK 1500 CLERKS RECRUITMENT


INDIAN OVERSEAS BANK
(A Govt of India Undertaking)
Central Office, 763, Anna Salai, Chennai – 600002
 
Recruitment of 1500 Clerical Staff – 2012
(Based on the IBPS CWE Clerk 2011-12)
Indian Overseas Bank will start its recruitment process for filling up 1500 vacant posts of Clerks from 29 June 2012. Online applications are invited from Indian citizens for the post of clerks who have taken the common written examination (CWE) for clerical cadre post conducted by IBPS in Nov/Dec 2011 and obtained a valid CWE-CLERK 2011-12 Score Card issued by IBPS

For detailed information on eligibility criteria, educational qualification, age, reservation, selection procedure, application fee etc., log on to Bank’s website www.iob.in under ‘Careers‘ page from 29.6.2012 to 14.7.2012.

Apply Details :
Apply Online at Bank’s website www.iob.in from 29.6.2012 to 14.7.2012. Candidates are advised to submit online applications well in advance and notto wait till last day.
Check All Details & Online Submission of Application  (Details available from 29.06.2012)
Note : keep visiting this page again for more updates on this requirement

Corporation Bank Probationary Assistant Manager Recruitment


Corporation Bank
(A govt. of India enterprise)
Corporate Office: P.B. No. 88, Mangaladevi Temple Road, Pandeshwar, Mangalore - 575001


Corporation Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for following posts of Probationary Assistant Manager for those who have valid score card of CWE conducted by  IBPS for Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees in 2011-12.

  • Probationary Assistant Manager :317 posts (UR-180, SC-41, ST-21, OBC-75) (PH-8), Pay Scale : JMGS-I Rs.14500-25700/-, Age : 20-30  years as on 01/07/2012
Application Fee : Rs.100/- (Rs.20/- for SC/ST/PH candidates) to be paid by a challan form in any branch of the Corporation bank.

How to Apply : Apply Online only at Corporation bank website from 27/06/2012 to 11/07/2012.

Kindly visit  http://www.corpbank.com/asp/careers_corp.html  for Detailed information and link to online submission of Application.

Tuesday, June 26, 2012

GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs FOR BANK EXAMS


1. Saina Nehwal won the Indonesian Open Super Series Premier tournament in Jakarta in June 2012. This is her third Indonesian Open badminton title in four years. Which of the following players did she defeat in the final?
1) Shixian Wang
2) Sayaka Sato
3) Wang Yihan
4) Ji Hyun Sung
5) Li Xuerui

2. Alex Paul Menon was abducted on April 21, 2012 by the Maoists and was released after 13 days. He is the district collector of which of the following districts in Chhattisgarh?
1) Balod
2) Narayanpur
3) Bilaspur
4) Sukma
5) Dantewada

3. Panch Parameshwar Yojana was launched in which of the following states recently for overall development of villages?
1) Bihar
2) Andhra Pradesh
3) Jharkhand
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Himachal Pradesh

4. Which cricket team has won the Ranji Trophy for 2011-12?
1) Rajasthan
2) Tamil Nadu
3) Baroda
4) Mumbai
5) Karnataka

5. With which game is B.C.Roy Trophy associated?
1) Hockey
2) Football
3) Cricket
4) Tennis
5) Billiards

6. Who was elected as the Chairman of the Indian Banks' Association (IBA) in June 2012?
1) J.P.Dua
2) Ajay Kumar
3) Alok Misra
4) M.Narendra
5) Pratip Chaudhary

7. Amalraj and Poulomi Ghatak are the national champions in men's and women's sections respecti-vely in which of the following sports?
1) Billiards
2) Table Tennis
3) Badminton
4) Lawn Tennis
5) Chess

8. Which of the following leaders was associated with the Velvet Revolution?
1) Lech Walesa
2) Nelson Mandela
3) Vaclav Havel
4) Joseph Stalin
5) Helmet Kohl

9. Ajit Singh, the Union Civil Aviation Minister, belongs to which of the following political parties?
1) Samajwadi Party
2) Bahujan Samaj Party
3) Trinamool Congress
4) Rashtriya Lok Dal
5) Biju Janata Dal

10. Who is the author of the book 'Non-Stop India'?
1) Mark Tully
2) Chetan Bhagat
3) Julian Barnes
4) Philip Roth
5) None of these

11. The United Nations Organisation (UNO) has declared 2012 as International Year of?
1) Mathematics
2) Chemistry
3) Banks
4) Cooperatives
5) Water

12. Expand the term FSDC?
1) Financial Security and Development Council
2) Financial Stability and Development Council
3) Fiscal Stability and Development Committee
4) Financial Stability and Development Commission
5) Fiscal Stability and Development Council

13. India is a member of which of the following groups of countries?
1) OPEC
2) APEC
3) ASEAN
4) NATO
5) BIMSTEC

14. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket?
1) Back Hand
2) Volley
3) Deuce
4) Follow on
5) Jockey

15. 'Dhanush' is a?
1) Nuclear submarine
2) Nuclear capable aircraft
3) Nuclear capable missile
4) Surface ship
5) Nuclear reactor

16. 'Bulava', also known as SS-NX-30, is a submarine-launched ballistic missile of which of the following countries?
1) China
 2) Russia
3) Iran
4) North Korea
5) South Korea

17. Expand the term CCEA?
1) Cabinet Council on Economic Affairs
2) Cabinet Council on External Affairs
3) Cabinet Committee on External Agencies
4) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
5) None of these

18. Who is the President of the European Parliament?
1) Jerzy Buzek (Poland)
2) Martin Schulz (Germany)
3) Alexander Alvaro (Germany)
4) Isabelle Durant (Belgium)
5) None of these

19. Ma Ying-jeou was re-elected the President of which of the following countries in 2012?
1) South Korea
2) North Korea
3) Taiwan
4) Myanmar
5) Vietnam

20. Jerry Yang quit which of the following companies in 2012? (He is the co-founder of this company)
1) Google
 2) Apple
3) You tube
4) Yahoo
5) Facebook

21. Which three former Soviet republics have introduced Common Economic Space (CES) in 2012? (CES promotes free movement of goods, capital and workforce within them)
1) Russia, Ukraine& Armenia
2) Russia, Belarus& Kazakhstan
3) Ukraine, Belarus& Moldova
4) Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan& Uzbekistan
5) None of these

22. Which of the following states has declared 2012 as 'Year of Youth' to properly harness young talent?
1) Punjab
2) Gujarat
3) Karnataka
4) Haryana
5) Andhra Pradesh

23. Which agency/institution has launched a micro ATM that would enable beneficiaries like MGNREGA workers with Aadhar to withdraw money near their doors through core banking system?
1) RBI
2) IBA
3) SEBI
4) SBI
5) UIDAI

24. 'When Loss is Gain' is a book set in contemporary India and in the Himalayan kingdom of Bhutan. Which Indian diplomat has written this book?
1) Nirupama Rao
2) Pavan K.Varma
3) Ranjan Mathai
4) Shiv Shankar Menon
5) Meera Shankar

25. Which state has launched a website known as 'Civil Conseq-uences of Crime' that will provide details of those convic-ted in criminal cases? (Criminals would be deprived of certain benefits provided to the citizens)
1) Gujarat
2) Kerala
3) Bihar
4) Maharashtra
5) Tamil Nadu

26. Narendra Singh is the Chairman and Managing Director of which of the following nationalized banks?
1) Bank of Baroda
2) Bank of Maharashtra
3) Indian Bank
4) Syndicate Bank
5) Indian Overseas Bank

27. The Community of Latin American and Caribbean States (CELAC) is the name of a regional bloc of Latin American and Caribbean nations. It consists of 33 countries in the Americas. Its inaugural Summit was held recently in which of the following cities?
1) Caracas (Venezuela)
2) Santiago (Chile)
3) Havana (Cuba)
4) San Jose (Costa Rica)
5) Bogotá (Colombia)

28. The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) has been constituted to rewrite and harmonize financial sector legislations, rules and regula-tions. Who is its Chairman?
1) D.Swarup
2) P.J.Nayak
3) Jayanth Varma
4) B.N.Sri Krishna
5) M.Govinda Rao

29. The value of all final goods and services produced in a country in a given year is known as?
1) PPP
2) BOP
3) GDP
4) CSO
5) None of these

30. Which of the following statements about the Indian economy is not correct?
1) Indian economy is one of the fastest growing economies in the world.
2) Economic growth rate for 2011-12 is 6.5 per cent.
3) India is one of the global leaders in software and business process outsourcing.
4) The World Bank has said that the Indian economy would grow by 6.9 per cent in fiscal 2012-13.
5) The primary sector's contrib-ution to Indian economy is 27%.

31. Which of the following progra-mmes is implemented in all the districts of India for providing employment for 100 days in a financial year to those willing to do manual jobs in rural areas?
1) NRHM
2) PMGSY
3) SGSY
4) MGNREGA
5) Bharat Nirman

32. India and Vietnam are engaged in which of the following activities in the South China Sea?
1) Mineral exploration 2) Fishing
3) Oil exploration
4) Disposal of nuclear waste
5) None of these

33. Which of the following financial institutions was established in 1990 to promote micro, small and medium-scale enterprises in India?
1) EXIM Bank
2) IDBI Bank
3) NABARD
4) SIDBI
5) ICICI Bank

34. Which of the following is not a core industry?
1) Coal
2) Crude oil
3) Steel
4) Cement
5) Gems

35. Which of the following agencies/ organizations compiles Index of Industrial Production (IIP)?
1) RBI
2) Planning Commission
3) Central Statistics Office
4) NDC
5) None of these

36. Kamla Persad Bissessar, the Prime Minister of Trinidad and Tobago, visited her native village Bhelupur, Buxar district in January 2012. In which state is Bhelupur located?
1) Haryana
2) Bihar
3) Punjab
4) West Bengal
5) None of these

37. Dassault Rafale has bagged India's biggest defense deal for supplying 126 Medium Multi-Role Combat Aircraft (MMR-CA) for the Indian Air Force. To which country does this company belong? (The deal is worth $10.2 Billion)
1) Spain
2) France
3) Belgium
4) Russia
5) Czech Republic

38. The theme of which of the following Summits in 2012 was "The Great Transformation: Shaping New Models?
1) BRICS
2) G8
3) G20
4) WEF
5) ASEAN

39. Which city hosted the European Union Leaders' Summit in January 2012?
1) Brussels
2) London
3) Berlin
4) Rome
5) Paris

40. Who was given the Ernst& Young Entrepreneur of the Year Award for 2011? (He is the MD of Inter Globe Enterprises)
1) Rahul Bhatia
2) B.S.Ajaikumar
3) Vivek Chaand Sehgal
4) T.K.Kurien
5) None of these


ANSWERS:
1) 5 2) 4 3) 4 4) 1 5) 2 6) 3 7) 2 8) 3 9) 4 10) 1 11) 4 12) 2 13) 5 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 2 19) 3 20) 4 21) 2 22) 4 23) 5 24) 2 25) 3 26) 2 27) 1 28) 4 29) 3 30) 5 31) 4 32) 3 33) 4 34) 5 35) 3 36) 2 37) 2 38) 4 39) 1 40) 1

Friday, June 22, 2012

GENERAL AWARENESS MCQs

1. Which one of the following statements regarding Vladimir Putin in incorrect?
(A) He is the leader of the United Russia Party.
(B) took the oath as the President of Russia on 7 May 2012.
(C) He had served as the President of Russia for two consecutive terms from 2000 to 2008.
(D) He is known as the father of modern Russia.
Answer: He is known as the father of modern Russia

2. Francois Hollande is elected as the President of which of the following nation?
(A) France
(B) Portugal
(C) Greece
(D) Poland
Answer: France

3. Which of the following group of nations has decided to hold consultations on South Asia and the Asia-Pacific region later this year?
(A) U.S., Russia and China
(B) U.S., Russia and India
(C) U.S., India and China
(D) U.S., Japan and China
Answer: U.S., India and China

4. The Teesta treaty has becomes a bone of contention between India and……………...?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) China
Answer: Bangladesh

5. Kumbum is a monastery found in which of the country?
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Thailand
(D) Japan
Answer: China

6. The President of which of the following country has recently supported same-sex marriage?
(A) The Netherlands
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Canada
(D) Vatican City
Answer: U.S.A.

7. India said the report biased titled “One Planet” on Asia Pacific region. The report was released by which of the following UN body–
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNSC
(C) UNDP
(D) UNCTAD
Answer: UNDP

8. The Filchner-Ronne Ice Shelf is found at–
(A) Antarctica region
(D) Arctic region
(C) Extra-polar region
(D) Himalayan region
Answer: Antarctica region

9. Consider the following statements–
1. invited Indian companies to participate in the exploration.
2. Puntaland is a territory of European continent.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) only 1
(B) only 2
(C) None of them
(D) Both of them
Answer: only 1

10. Which one of the following is not a nuclear site of Iran?
(A) Qom
(B) Natanz
(C) Bushehr
(D) Abadan
Answer: Abadan

11. Recently a team of Indian scientists have achieved a breakthrough in the search for new anti-malarial compounds of natural origin to combat different strains of the parasites responsible for the dreaded disease. The project is funded by which one of the followings?
(A) Department of Biotechnology
(B) Department of Science and Technology
(C) World Health Organisation
(D) UNESCO
Answer: Department of Biotechnology

12. The Union Ministry of Environment and Forests (MoEF) banned the use of live animals in dissection and other experiments in educational and research institutions. The ban is based on which one of the followings?
(A) The prevention of cruelty to Animals Act 1960.
(B) The prevention of cruelty to animals act 1970
(C) The prevention of cruelty to animals act 1980
(D) The Prevention of cruelty to animals act 1990
Answer: The prevention of cruelty to Animals Act 1960

13. A 600 MW solar power park, touted as Asia's first and largest, was dedicated to the nationat which one of the following place?
(A) Badmer, Rajasthan
(B) Patan, Gujarat
(C) Anand, Gujarat
(D) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
Answer: Patan, Gujarat

14. The two-member Adarsh Judicial Commission set up to probe into the scam-tainted Adarsh Housing Society submitted its interim report to the state Government on 13 April 2012? By which of the following governments was the committee set up?
(A) Maharashtra Government
(B) Union Government
(C) Gujarat Government
(D) Andhra Pradesh Government
Answer: Maharashtra Government

15. Who among the following leaders was re-elected General Secretary of CPI (M) for the third consecutive term at the party's 20th Congress, which took place at Kozhikode?
(A) Brinda Karat
(B) Prakash Karat
(C) Sitaram Yechury
(D) AB Bardhan
Answer: Prakash Karat

16. Consider the following statements–
1. A High-Level Expert Group (HLEG) chaired by Srinath Reddy was mandated to develop a framework for providing easily accessible and affordable health care to all Indians.
2. The HLEG was appointed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) None of the above
Answer: Only 1

17. Consider the following statements–
1. Today India is the largest producer of movies in the world.
2. The National Film Development Corporation of India plans to launch the National Film Heritage Mission with a view to conserving blockbuster movies of the past 100 years of Indian cinema.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) None of the above
Answer: Both 1 & 2

18. Which of the following district of Bihar has achieved highest record paddy and potato production?
(A) Nawada
(B) Nalanda
(C) Saharasa
(D) Saran
Answer: Nalanda

19. The Centre on 2nd April has rewarded.........................States for performing well in executing rural drinking water schemes during 2011-12?
(A) Six
(B) Seven
(C) Eight
(D) Nine
Answer: Eight

20. Which one of the following will be the longest tunnel of India being constructed in J&K?
(A) Banihal tunnel
(B) Rohtang tunnel
(C) Chenani-Nashri tunnel
(D) None of them
Answer: Chenani-Nashri tunnel 



21. As per a report by Security and Defence Agenda (SDA) and McAfee on 6 May 2012, India ranked………………in affected cyber crimes?
(A) 4th
(B) 5th
(C) 6th
(D) 7th
Answer: 6th

22. Pranahita-Chevella irrigation project was signed between which two states?
(A) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra
(C) MP and Maharashtra
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
Answer: Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra

23. Which of the following job guarantee scheme was expanded on 9th May to include 30 works in agriculture, watershed, livestock, fisheries, flood management and irrigation?
(A) MNREGA
(B) NRLM
(C) SSGRY
(D) PRY
Answer: MNREGA

24. A centre dedicated to the life and works of Rabindranath Tagoreis being proposed to be established at–
(A) London
(B) Washington
(C) Edinburgh
(D) Tokyo
Answer: Edinburgh

25. The………………..alone have been empowered to decide on the priority of work to be taken up under MNREGA:
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Gram Sabha
(C) DRDA
(D) State government
Answer: Gram Panchayat

26. The UN General Assembly started observing the World Environment Day in 1972 to
1. raise public awareness about the need of better environment.
2. to mark the opening of the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment
Choose the right option–
(A) Both 1and 2 are correct.
(B) Only 1 is correct.
(C) Only 2 is correct.
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
Answer: Both 1and 2 are correct

27. Scientists at the Tomato Genome Consortium (TGC) successfully sequenced the genomes of which of the following vegetables?
(A) Tomato
(B) Onion
(C) Brinjal
(D) Potato
Answer: Tomato

28. One of the Asia-Pacific nations has agreed to hold its first ever maritime exercises with India. The nation is–
(A) Vietnam
(B) U.S.A
(C) Australia
(D) Japan
Answer: U.S.A.

29. A report titled “Living Planet Report 2012” was released on 15 May 2012 by which one of the following international body–
(A) UNEP
(B) WWF
(C) IUCN
(D) IPCC
Answer: IPCC

30. Myanmar opposition leader Aung San Suu Kyi was after a long wait allowed visiting any nation. First of all she has visited–
(A) Thailand
(B) Vietnam
(C) India
(D) China
Answer: Thailand

31. The Tibetan spiritual leader, the Dalai Lama, received the Templeton Prize on 14 May 2012 for his role in promoting links between spirituality and science. The prize money of the award is–
(A) 1.7 million dollar
(B) 2.2 million dollar
(C) 2.7 million dollar
(D) 2.2 million dollar
Answer: 1.7 million dollar

32. Muktinath Temple, a pilgrimage destination for Hindus is situated at which of the following nation?
(A) India
(B) Nepal
(C) Trinidad & Tobago
(D) Malaysia
Answer: India

33. Which of the following country on 9th May has passed a law to encourage a multiparty political system in the country?
(A) Jordan
(B) Qatar
(C) Russia
(D) India
Answer: Jordan

34. Pakistan successfully test-fired Hatf III missile on 10 May 2012. Another name of the missile is–
(A) Babar
(B) Ghaznavi
(C) Gouri
(D) Shahin
Answer: Ghaznavi

35. Consider the following statements–
1. About 50 people on board were killed in a Superjet 100 aircraft crash about 40 miles (64 km) south of Jakarta on 9 May 2012.
2. The Superjet 100 aircraft, Russia's first all-new passenger jet since the fall of the Soviet Union went missing on 9 May 2012.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) only2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) None of them
Answer: Only 1


36. Veteran actor of Bengali cinema Soumitra Chatterjee was honoured with one of the following award–
(A) Dadasaheb Phalke Award
(B) Dadasaheb Phalke Ratna Award
(C) Lifetime Achievement Award
(D) Sahitya Academy Award
Answer: Dadasaheb Phalke Award

37. According to the 66th round of National Sample Survey (NSS) carried out between July 2009 and June 2010, about…………….of India's rural population lives on less than Rs 35 a day–
(A) 60%
(B) 62%
(C) 66%
(D) 69%
Answer: 66%

38. Which of the following Indian actress has been chosen as the brand ambassador for sanitation programme?
(A) Kareena Kapoor
(B) Vidya Balan
(C) Aishwarya Rai
(D) Hema Malini
Answer: Vidya Balan

39. Recently which of the following body has directed to the Central government to eliminate Haj Subsidy?
(A) Law Commission of India
(B) Supreme court of India
(C) Ministry of Minority Affairs
(D) PMO
Answer: Supreme court of India

40. Yesteryear actress Sushma Seth has been recently awarded by–
(A) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(B) Jgyanpith Award
(C) Kalpana Chawla Award
(D) Best Jury Award at National Film Festival
Answer: Kalpana Chawla Award
  


41. Among the following sentences about the suggestions made by Parliamentary panel, pick out the wrong one:
(A) It has recently suggested to the government to build capabilities to face any challenge.
(B) It has suggested allocating funds towards the modernization of Indian army.
(C) It also underscored the need to fast-track procurement of ammunition for the Army considering that the situation is critical.
(D) It has suggested to restart India’s IGMDP.
Answer: It has suggested to restart India’s IGMDP

42. Who among the following leaders was re-elected General Secretary of the CPI (M) for the third consecutive term at the party's 20th Congress, which took place at Kozhikode?
(A) Brinda Karat
(B) Prakash Karat
(C) Sitaram Yechury
(D) (A) (B) Bardhan
Answer: Prakash Karat

43. The Union Cabinet, on April 26, 2012 decided to retain the voting rights in the private sector banks at 10 percent and felt it could be raised progressively to
(A) 26 percent
(B) 11 percent
(C) 33 percent
(D) 42 percent
Answer: 26 percent

44. ISRO recently gave clearance for using which frequency band from satellite for internet on trains?
(A) C Band
(B) KU band
(C) S Band
(D) 3G Spectrum
Answer: KU band

45. Who is appointed Governor of Rajasthan on 12th May 2012?
(A) Shivraj Singh
(B) Aruna Roy
(C) Margaret Alwa
(D) Prabha Singh
Answer: Margaret Alwa

46. Mother's day is celebrated on–
(A) 13 May
(B) 8 May
(C) 8 April
(D) 14 November
Answer: 13 May

47. The multi-disciplinary steering committee of the Union Sports Ministry approved National coaching camps and exposure trips for the Olympic-bound wrestlers, Name the place where the camp was set up?
(A) Chandigadh
(B) Bhiwani
(C) Patiala
(D) Sonepat
Answer: Sonepat

48. A new naval base, INS Dweeprakshak, of the Indian Navy has been commissioned at–
(A) A&N Islands
(B) Lakshadweep
(C) Visakhapatnam
(D) Kochi
Answer: Lakshadweep

49. The Supreme Court on 2nd May ordered the release of merchant navy ship Enrica Lexie which was seized at Kerala. The ship belongs to–
(A) Italy
(B) France
(C) Singapore
(D) Thailand
Answer: Italy

50. A report title “Premature baby deaths in India” was released on May 2 by which one of the following body?
(A) WHO
(B) UNESCO
(C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(D) None of the above
Answer: None of the above

Monday, June 18, 2012

GENERAL AWARENESS PRACTICE QUESTIONS


1. Abel Prize is named after Norwegian mathematician Niels Henrik Abel (1802-1829). It is given annually to outstanding mathematicians by the Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters. Who won this prize in 2012?
1) Mikhail Gromov
2) John Tate
3) John Thompson
4) Jacques Tits
5) Endre Szemeredi

2. The Inter State Council was set up in 1990 following the recom-mendation of the Sarkaria Com-mission on Centre-State relatio-ns. Who is its present Chairman?
1) Hamid Ansari
2) Manmohan Singh
3) Pranab Mukherjee
4) C.Rangarajan
5) None of these

3. Which state has recently started a programme called 'Anandadhara' for Self Help Groups?
1) Andhra Pradesh
2) Odisha
3) West Bengal
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Himachal Pradesh

4. Which country's lower house of the Parliament is called State Duma?
1) Japan
2) Italy
3) Russia
4) Maldives
5) Philippines

5. Who was appointed as the Prime Minister of France on May 15, 2012?
1) Jean-Marc Ayrault
2) Francois Hollande
3) Laurent Fabius
4) Nicolas Sarkozy
5) None of these

6. Golden Globe Awards are given for excellence in which of the following fields?
1) Literature
2) Journalism
3) Sports
4) Science
5) Film & Television

7. Who won her first world cup individual recurve gold medal in archery at Antalya, Turkey in May 2012?
1) Dola Banerjee
2) Deepika Kumari
3) Bombayala Devi
4) Purnima Mahato
5) None of these

8. Who was presented Ashok Chakra posthumously on January 26, 2012?
1) Lt.Sushil Khajuria
2) Lt.Navdeep Singh
3) Lt.Col.Kamaldeep Singh
4) Captain Ashutosh Kumar
5) None of these

9. According to the Prime Minister, the research and development spending would be doubled by which of the following years?
1) 2015
2) 2016
3) 2017
4) 2020
5) 2018

10. What is the bilateral trade target between India and Thailand for 2014?
1) 7 billion dollars
2) 14 billion dollars
3) 10 billion dollars
4) 20 billion dollars
5) 12 billion dollars

11. Which of the following is a pilot less target aircraft?
1) Prithvi
2) Akash
3) Pinakini
4) Lakshya
5) None of these

12. Amjad Ali Khan has been prese-nted the Mallikarjun Mansur award, which is named after the legendary Hindustani singer. He is an expert in playing which of the following instruments?
1) Santoor
2) Sitar
3) Sarod
4) Bansuri
5) Mohan Veena

13. What does 'I' denote in the abbreviation FIPB?
1) Innovation
2) Investment
3) India
4) Industrial
5) None of these

14. With regard to the 57th Filmfare Awards for 2011 which of the following pairs is not matched correctly?
1) Best Film - Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
2) Best Actress - Priyanka Chopra
3) Best Music - A.R. Rahman
4) Lifetime Achievement - Aruna Irani
5) Best Director - Zoya Akhtar

15. Who was recently honoured with a Knighthood by the British royal establishment?
1) Amartya Sen
2) Lakshmi Nivas Mittal
3) Anil Agarwal
4) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
5) None of these

16. The DSC Prize for South Asian Literature 2012 was given to Shehan Karunatilaka for his book 'Chinaman'. To which country does this author belong?
1) Nepal
2) Bhutan
3) Thailand
4) India
5) Sri Lanka

17. Who among the following was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2012?
1) Ronen Sen
2) N.Vittal
3) T.V.Rajeshwar
4) Shabana Azmi
5) Dharmendra

18. Where was the largest literary festival in Asia-Pacific held in January 2012?
1) Hyderabad
2) Jaipur
3) Mumbai
4) Kolkata
5) Chandigarh

19. Laurent Lamothe became the Prime Minister of which of the following countries on May 16, 2012?
1) Cuba
2) Jamaica
3) Barbados
4) Haiti
5) Dominican Republic

20. Goolam Vahanavati was reappoi-nted to which of the following posts for two more years with effect from June 8, 2012?
1) Chief Election Commissioner
2) Attorney General
3) Solicitor General
4) Central Vigilance Commissioner
5) None of these

21. Who was given the Phalke Ratna Award in May 2012?
1) Manoj Kumar
2) Shashi Kapoor
3) Rishi Kapoor
4) Amitabh Bachchan
5) None of these

22. Identify the mismatched pair STATE GOVERNOR
1) Goa - B.V.Wanchoo
2) Uttarakhand - Aziz Qureshi
3) Maharashtra - K.Sankara- narayanan
4) Rajasthan - Margaret Alva
5) Gujarat - H.R.Bharadwaj

23. Hillary Clinton visited India in May 2012. She is the United States?
1) Secretary of State
2) Defense Secretary
3) Commerce Secretary
4) Treasury Secretary
5) None of these

24. Edvard Munch's painting 'The Scream' was sold for a record $ 120 million at an auction in May 2012. Munch belonged to which of the following countries?
1) Sweden
2) Denmark
3) Poland
4) Ukraine
5) Norway

25. Who was awarded the Ernst & Young Lifetime Achievement Award for his contribution to the emergence of financial Services in India?
1) Deep Kalra
2) Deepak Parekh
3) Anand Burman
4) Analjit Singh
5) N.Chandrasekaran

26. Jana Gana Mana, India's National Anthem, completed 100 years recently. It was sung for the first time at the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress on which of the following dates?
1) January 24, 1912
2) January 26, 1912
3) December 27, 1911
4) December 25, 1911
 5) None of these

27. Ellen Johnson Sirleaf was sworn in the President of which of the following African countries for the second time on January 16, 2012?
1) Malawi
2) Liberia
3) Uganda
4) Rwanda
5) Sudan

28. Viswanathan Anand won the world chess championship for the fifth time in Moscow in May 2012 by defeating which of the following players?
1) Magnus Carlsen
2) Vladimir Kramnik
3) Boris Gelfand
4) Vassily Ivanchuk
5) None of these

29. Which is the largest bank in the private sector in India in terms of number of branches?
1) HDFC Bank
2) ICICI Bank
3) Axis Bank
4) IndusInd Bank
5) Kotak Mahindra Bank

30. Which organization was set up to boost overall rural development in India?
1) RBI 2) SEBI
3) SIDBI
4) NABARD
5) PFRDA

31. Indian Overseas Bank celebrated Platinum Jubilee (75 years) in 2012. Where is its headquarters located?
1) Bangalore
2) Mumbai
3) Chennai
4) New Delhi
5) Hyderabad

32. Which of the following is a private bank in India?
1) Corporation Bank
2) Canara Bank
3) Syndicate Bank
4) Vijaya Bank
5) South Indian Bank

33. The Head Office of which of the following banks is in Kolkata?
1) Indian Bank
2) Syndicate Bank
3) Bank of India
4) UCO Bank
5) None of these

34. Amar Kant is an eminent author in which of the following languages?
1) Odiya
2) Hindi
3) Kannada
4) Punjabi
5) None of these

35. Which of the following organizations work for the welfare of women?
1) CRY
2) CII
3) SEWA
4) WIPO
5) CCI

36. Who is the author of the book 'A Bend in the River'?
1) Mark Tully
2) Amrita Preetam
3) Mulk Raj Anand
4) V.S.Naipaul
5) None of these

37. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
1) Nepal
2) Myanmar
3) Bhutan
4) Bangladesh
5) Sri Lanka

38. The Kyoto Protocol is aimed at fighting?
1) Terrorism
2) Global warming
3) Maritime piracy
4) Economic recession
5) None of these

39. David Ferrer is a Lawn Tennis player of which of the following countries?
1) Spain
2) Australia
3) Switzerland
4) Argentina
5) None of these

40. Which agency was set up to boost foreign investments in India?
1) FCCB
2) FEMA
3) FIPB
4) FRBM
5) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) 5 2) 2 3) 3 4) 3 5) 1 6) 5 7) 2 8) 2 9) 3 10) 2
11) 4 12) 3 13) 2 14) 2 15) 4 16) 5 17) 3 18) 2 19) 4 20) 2
21) 4 22) 5 23) 1 24) 5 25) 2 26) 3 27) 2 28) 3 29) 2 30) 4
31) 3 32) 5 33) 4 34) 2 35) 3 36) 4 37) 2 38) 2 39) 1 40) 3

Saturday, June 16, 2012

Bank of Baroda Probationary Officer Exam., 2011 Solved Paper

English Language
(Exam Held on 13-3-2011)
 
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Rearrange the following seven sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) and (7) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) But seriously, how much would you pay to know what thoughts are swimming around in someone else’s head ?
(2) In most fictional movies thus, the idea of reading minds – of seeing the private intentions of another, and the possibility of intervening in those plans – has always been highly attractive.
(3) Such fantastical questions have long been the bread and butter of fiction.
(4) Today, more than four centuries since the phrase, ‘A penny for your thoughts?’ was first recorded, inflationary accounting makes that ancient penny worth more than $ 40.
(5) The going rate for a ‘thought’ – a probe into the thinking of another – was once quite a bargain.
(6) And if you could really know their truthfulness how much more would you pay ?
(7) Even with the sliding value of the dollar, this still seems quite a bargain.

1. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 3 (D) 7
(E) 1
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 7 (D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

3. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 3 (D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following should be the SEVENTH (Last) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

Directions— (Q. 6–16) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

The economics of owning and running a Ration Shop, the familiar name for the outlets in our Public Distribution System (PDS), are such that under normal business terms, the shop-owner could never make a profit. Yet, …(6)… the government announces that new permits for ration shops will be given out, there is frenzy in the market to grab one of these …(7)… ? The answer is bovious : the business is not for the honest and if one knows the …(8)…, there is a fortune to be made.

What are these tricks of the trade ?

l Getting fake names into the user list is the most obvious option; the State seems to be …(9)… a losing battle against this practice, judging by the endless efforts to weed out bogus ration cards.
l The next is to get the ‘right customers’ on the list, not just more customers. These are people who are registered but who do not have any interest in …(10)… on their entitlements. In a system where caste and income certificates are for sale, it is not …(11)… to ‘produce’ these documents for mutual benefit. Receipts are duly made in their names, and the rations thus ‘drawn’ are …(12)… off into the open market. The sale price of an item like rice makes clear the …(13)… economics – it costs Rs. 8 is a ration shop while in the latter it is Rs. 30 or above. There are also customers who would rather exchange their entitlements for hard cash at the beginning of the month.
l As the degradation progresses, the shop keeper, in …(14)… with the official machinery, manages to withhold effectively the entitlements from even the genuine beneficiaries, and diverts them to the open market. The targeted group is usually not in a position to …(15)… itself to get its due.

And thus one has all the …(16)… of a good PDS business.

6. (A) whenever (B) quickly
(C) just (D) as soon
(E) time
Ans : (A)

7. (A) what (B) when
(C) where (D) why
(E) how
Ans : (D)

8. (A) lying (B) people
(C) sprouting (D) hard work
(E) ropes
Ans : (A)

9. (A) attempt (B) waging
(C) winning (D) expecting
(E) trying
Ans : (B)

10. (A) harping (B) discussing
(C) realizing (D) drawing
(E) giving
Ans : (D)

11. (A) easy (B) must
(C) difficult (D) simple
(E) enough
Ans : (C)

12. (A) sell (B) borrowed
(C) donated (D) bought
(E) siphoned
Ans : (E)

13. (A) understood (B) poor
(C) underlying (D) mechanical
(E) unclear
Ans : (C)

14. (A) meeting (B) collusion
(C) flow (D) show
(E) line
Ans : (B)

15. (A) ask (B) voiced
(C) assert (D) deliver
(E) willful
Ans : (C)

16. (A) things (B) ingredients
(C) dictate (D) component
(E) facet
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 17–20) Which of the words/phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

17. A lot of time we hear from actors that they regret the kind of roles they have been doing all this while, but this actor says he has never any regrets.
(A) never has have (B) has never had
(C) has no (D) has had
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

18. The actress participated in the event whole-hearted, cheered the participants, danced with them and emphasised on the importance of creating awareness for oral care across the country.
(A) whole-heartedly (B) whole-heart
(C) with whole-heart (D) wholly-hearted
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

19. Although complete treatment of cancer is beyond the reach of the underprivileged but no child should lose his life for want of funds.
(A) Though (B) As
(C) The (D) Since
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

20. Slated to begin this year, the league could provide a soneeded boost to hockey in India.
(A) so-needful (B) much-needy
(C) much-need (D) much-needed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Much of the ……… that cricket has is due to the fact it is a ……… sport.
(A) Allure, lucrative (B) Criticism, controversial
(C) Attraction, unpopular (D) Flak, great
(E) Comments, unusual
Ans : (A)

22. Since foggy weather ……… visibility by several metres, the railways has either partially ……… or diverted some of the trains.
(A) improves, started (B) impairs, called off
(C) hampers, withdrawn (D) decrease, stopped
(E) reduces, cancelled
Ans : (B)

23. The once …… district is gradually being ……… of its green cover.
(A) remote, eroded (B) arid, replenished
(C) beautiful, devoid (D) picturesque, depleted
(E) lush, rob
Ans : (C)

24. The pilot knew she would be able to see the ……… lights of the city from her cockpit window, but she would not see the fireworks explode to welcome the new year as she would have ……… to cruising altitude.
(A) few, soared (B) divine, escalate
(C) glistening, jumped (D) shining, reached
(E) glittering, climbed
Ans : (D)

25. The New Year has ……… in good news for city hotels as most properties are ……… for the whole month.
(A) brought, deserted (B) ushered, packed
(C) pushed, full (D) steered, renovating
(E) escorted, vacant
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

26. The bane of Indian hockey today is (A) / lack of interest by the part of the public (B) / which in turn is fuelled by the perception that (C) / it doesn’t pay to take up the sport as a career. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

27. Illegal sand mining has become (A) / a boom business fuelled (B) / by the ever-increasing demand (C) / of the construction industry. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

28. Much is the inflow of travelers that (A) / it is tough to book an air ticket (B) / to Ahmedabad and the international flights (C) / too are almost over-booked. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

29. Experts believe that a (A) / gradually decreasing infant mortality rate (B) / is lead to a proportionate (C) / decrease in the size of our brains. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. In just two months after having (A) / planted these, most of the plants have (B) / either dried up and are suffering (C) / due to lack of maintenance. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

31. In cities people don’t (A) / always have the time to (B)/ catch up with old friends or (C) / spend times with their family. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. The band have been (A) / performing at many cause-oriented concerts (B) / to encourage people to come forward and (C) / lend their support to the noble cause. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. As market leaders, (A) / we have always been at (B) / the forefront of creating awareness (C) / between the public. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

34. If the IPL has succeeded in drawing (A) / an audience across the country, it is because (B) / cricket has always had a strong foundation (C) / and a dedicated audience. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. In view of the intense cold wave conditions (A) / prevailing in the state, the government declared (B) / holidays in all the schools (C) / for a period of ten days. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the question.

It was in the offing. With shortages mounting across the board for water as they are for energy, it was only inevitable that the Central government would be stirred into starting a Bureau of Water Efficiency (BWE), much like the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) that was launched some years ago.

Early reports suggest that the draft norms for various sectors consuming water will be created by the BWE soon. The alarm bells have been ringing for some years now. Water availability per capita in India has fallen about 5 million litres in the 1950s to 1•3 million litres in 2010— that’s a staggering 75 per cent drop in 50 years. Nearly 60 per cent of India’s aquifers have slumped to critical levels in just the last 15 years. The rate at which borewells are being plunged in every city with no law to ban such extraction, ground water tables have depleted alarmingly.

The BEE’s efforts in the last seven years have only been cosmetic. The bureau has looked at efficiency rating systems for white goods in the domestic sector, and has not paid attention to the massive consumption of energy in metals manufacture, paper, and textiles. These sectors are very intense in both energy and water consumption. But very little attention has been paid to the water and energy used per tonne of steel or cement or aluminium that we buy, and without significant changes in these areas, the overall situtation is unlikely to change.

Use of water is inextricably interlinked with energy. One does not exist without the other. The BWE should steer clear of the early mistakes of BEE – of focusing on the ‘softer targets’ in the domestic sector. Nearly 80 per cent of fresh water is used by agriculture, with industry coming a close second. The domestic sector’s consumption of fresh water is in single digits. So the BWE’s priority should be to look at measures that will get farmers and industrialists to follow good practices in water use. Water resources have to be made, by law, an indivisible national asset. The protection and withdrawal of this resource, as well as its sustainable development are of general importance and therefore in the public interest. This will mean that individuals and organisations may own land but not water or the other resources that lie below the first 20 metres of the surface of those lands. Drilling of borewells into such ‘national assets’ will have to be banned, or at the very least they must be regulated. What would be more sensible for the new water bureau to do would be to look at some of the low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly, with laws that can emanate from the Centre, without the risk of either dilution or inaction from state adminis trations. The other tactical approach that the BWE can adopt is to devise a policy that addresses the serious water challenge in industry segments across a swathe of companies : this will be easier than taking on the more disparate domestic sector which hurts the water crisis less than industry. Implementing a law is more feasible when the concentration is dense and identifiable. Industry offers this advantage more than the domestic or the commercial sector of hotels and offices.

As for agriculture, though the country’s water requirement is as high as 80 per cent, the growing of water within the loop in agriculture de-risks the challenge of any perceived deficit. Rice, wheat, sugarcane are crops that need water-logging, which ensures ground water restoration. Surface water evaporation doesn’t amount to any more than 7–8 per cent and only strengthens precipitation and rainfall. Agriculture and water need is not quite as much a threat as industry and domestic sectors that account for the rest of the 20 per cent.

The primary challenge in industry and the building sector is that no conscious legal measures have been enacted that stipulate ‘growing your own water’ with measures that will ‘put all water in a a loop’ in any residential or commercial building. This involves treating all used water to a grade that it can be ‘upcycled’ for use in flush tanks and for gardens across all our cities with the polluter owning the responsibility for treating and for reuse. The drop in fresh water demand can be dramatic with such upcycle, reuse, and recycle of treated water. Water by itself in industry and the domestic sector, is not as much a challenge as pollution of water. Not enough measures exist yet to ensure that such polluters shift the water back for reuse. If legislation can ensure that water is treated and reused for specific purposes within industry as well as in the domestic sector, this will make all the difference to the crisis on fresh water.

So is the case in industry, especially in sectors like textiles, aluminium and steel. Agriculture offers us the amusing irony of the educated urbanites dependent on cereals like rice and wheat that consume 4000 litres of water for every kg, while the farmer lives on the more nutritious millets that consume less than half the quantity. Sugarcane consumes as much as 12,000 litres of water for a kilo of cane that you buy !

A listing of such correlations of water used by every product that we use in our daily lives with make much better sense that any elaborate rating system from the newly formed BWE. Such sensitizing with concerted awareness campaigns that the new Bureau drives will impact the urban consumer more than all the research findings that experts can present. What is important for us is to understand the life-cycle impact in a way that we see the connect between a product that we use and the resources it utilizes up to the point where we bring the visible connect to destruction of natural resources of our ecosystems.

36. How, according to the author, can the bureau sensitize the urban consumer about careful utilization of water ?
(A) By encouraging them to consume more rice instead of millets daily and thereby reduce the amount of water consumption.
(B) By providing them more insight into the water consumption cycle of the textile, aluminium and steel industries.
(C) By making them aware of the linkages between water consumption for daily activities and
the resource utilization and subsequent ecological destruction associated with it.
(D) By publishing research findings of experts in popular media whereby people gain awareness on the impact of water misuse.
(E) By conducting elaborate drives which notify the urban population about the penalties levied on misuse of water resources.
Ans : (C)

37. Why, according to the author, is the water consumption for agricultural activities the least risky ?
(A) Proportion of water consumed for agricultrual activities is much less as compared to that consumed for domestic and industrial purposes.
(B) Most farmers are aware of the popular methods of water conservation and hence do not allow wastage of water.
(C) Water is fairly recycled through ground water restoration due to water-logging and surface water evaporation.
(D) Farmers in India mostly cultivate crops that require less amount of water.
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Water Challenges in the New Millennium
(B) The Bureau of Water Efficiency Vs. the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(C) Unchecked Urban Consumption of Water
(D) Challenges of the Agricultural Sector and Water Resources
(E) The Route to Conservation of Water Resources
Ans : (E)

39. What does ‘low-hanging fruits that can be plucked, and pretty quickly’ mean in the context of the passage ?
(A) The bureau should employ the cheapest methods possible to effectively control the current situation of improper usage of water resources.
(B) The bureau should target the industrial sector as well as the domestic sector to reduce water wastage.
(C) The bureau should target the agricultural sector only for producing quick results in reducing wastage of water.
(D) The bureau should ensure that all the state officials concerned with the measures are actively involved.
(E) The bureau should start with adopting measures which are simple to execute and produce immediate results in reducing water wastage.
Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the indication/s of a water crisis ?
1. Many agrarian areas in the country are facing a drought– like situation.
2. Almost three-fifth of the naturally available water has been reduced to a very critical level in a relatively short span of time.
3. There has been a significant drop in the availability of water over the past fifty years.
(A) Only 2 (B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 3 (D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)

41. The author suggests that the Bureau of Water Efficiency devise a strategy or make laws to meet water challenges in the industrial segments rather than the domestic segments because—
(A) The industrial sector is the only one that is in a position to reduce its water consumption by a significant margin.
(B) There is comparatively less serious water misuse in the domestic sector.
(C) It would be easy to identify the consumption patterns in the industrial sector because of its density and visibility.
(D) The industrial sector would be capable of paying the fines levied by the Bureau for water misuse whereas the domestic sector would be in no such position.
(E) The industrial sector would be easier to manage in terms of making them understand the importance of water conservation
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the step/s that the Bureau of Water Efficiency can take to ensure proper utilization of water resources ?
1. Put in place measures that ensure proper water usage.
2. Concentrate on the water consumption patterns of the domestic sector alone.
3. Monitor carefully the activity of digging borewells.
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 (D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (A)

43. Which of the following is true about the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, in the context of the passage ?
1. It failed to pay adequate attention to industries like metal, textiles, etc. in terms of energy consumption.
2. It focused on rating systems for efficient use of goods in the domestic sector.
3. It mostly focused on the energy consumption in the domestic sector.
(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 (D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 44–47) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. COSMETIC
(A) Enhancive (B) Beauty
(C) Augmentative (D) Superficial
(E) Aesthetic
Ans : (D)

45. STAGGERING
(A) Weaving (B) Astounding
(C) Lurching (D) Stumbling
(E) Unsteady
Ans : (B)

46. CONSCIOUS
(A) Unknown (B) Mindful
(C) Self-aware (D) Awake
(E) Alert
Ans : (D)

47. DRAMATIC
(A) Remarkable (B) Moving
(C) Theatrical (D) Histrionic
(E) Staged
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 48–50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. INTENSE
(A) Smooth (B) Serious
(C) Low (D) Diluted
(E) Jovial
Ans : (C)

49. TACTICAL
(A) Unplanned (B) Uniform
(C) Devious (D) Premeditated
(E) Deformed
Ans : (A)

50. INEVITABLE
(A) Certain (B) Unforeseeable
(C) Unavoidable (D) Inescapable
(E) Perdictable
Ans : (B)

Union Bank of India Clerks Recruitment


Union Bank of India has come out with its recruitment of clerks for IBPS common written exam qualifiers. 

Clerk/ Single window operator – 1636 posts

Important Dates:

Online registrations & fee payment:
from 19.06.2012 to 03.07.2012

Interview could be held in the month August 

Qualifications: 

The eligibility conditions to apply for clerical jobs in Union bank are ,
  • Min.age of 20 & max. 28 years, as on 1.08.2011
  • Should have completed degree (any discipline) from a recog. university
  • Can apply to vacancies in a state that has your test centre
  • Compulsory to read/ write/ speak the state`s official language
  • Preference shall be given to those with computer knowledge.
In addition to the above criteria, registrants must have secured the minimum cutoff 

Selection:

Union bank of India will shortlist candidates for Interviews according to their IBPS TWS scores in the ratio of 1:3 & 1:5 as per merit.

50 marks is allotted for the interview process & it is necessary to secure atleast 50% (45% for SC/ST/OBC) for consideration into final list., which shall be prepared state/ category wise.

Although appointees will be under probation period for 6 months, there is no service bond for clerical cadre employees.

Registrations:

Those fulfilling the set requirements can visit any branch of Union bank of India between June 19 – July 3 & pay Rs.20 (sc/st) or Rs.100 (gen/obc) in cash using the fee challan that's given at the end of recruitment notice.
While keeping the original counterfoil of challan safe, proceed to the online application link at unionbankofindia.co.in, fill required details & press submit.
After completing the registration successfully, do not forget to take a print of the system generated application.Make sure to provide correct details as editing/modifying is not possible after submission.


Download

The notification, challan, certificate models for union bank of India`s clerk recruitment 2012-13 can downed from their website

Thursday, June 14, 2012

UNITED BANK OF INDIA SPECIALIST OFFICERS RECRUITMENT


UNITED BANK OF INDIA
( A Govt. of India Undertaking)
11, Hemant Basu Sarani, Kolkata – 700001


United Bank of India invites Online applications for the post of Agricultural Field Officers (JMG SC –I ) and Technical Officers (JMG SC I) from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination for recruitment of Specialist Officers conducted by IBPS in March 2012 and hold a valid Score card issued by IBPS,Mumbai :

  • Agricultural Field Officers :  38 posts 
  • Technical Officers (Electrical/ Civil Engineers) : 06 posts
  • Pay Scale : JMGS-I Rs.14500-25700
  • Age : 20-35 years  as on 01/12/2011
Application Fee : Rs.100/- (Rs.20/- for SC/ST/PWD) to be deposited through CBS at any of the Branches of United Bank of India by means of a Payment challan OR (ii) Through NEFT at any Bank branch.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format available at United Bank's website from 15/06/2012 to 29/06/2012 only.

Please visit http://www.unitedbankofindia.com/English/Recruitment.aspx  for all the details and Online submission of application.

Tuesday, June 12, 2012

CANARA BANK PROBATIONARY CLERKS RECRUITMENT



Canara Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank inviting applications for Probationary Clerk Jobs from eligible candidates. Canara Bank issued a job notification to recruit 2000 Probationary Clerks jobs for their branches all over India. Candidates who are eligible can apply for this job can apply online.

Details: 
Post Name: Probationary Clerk
Vacancies: 2000

Eligibility: 
Graduation with 60% marks (55% for SC/ST/PWD) and a valid IBPS score in CWE for Probationary Officers/ Management Trainees 2011-12.
Computer Literacy: Operating & working knowledge in computer systems shall be an essential qualification, which a candidate must either possess or acquire within 6 months from the date of joining the Bank.

Important Dates: 
Payment of Application Fee/ Intimation Charges: 18th June 2012 to 1st July 2012.
Opening Date of Online Registration in website: 18th June 2012
Closing Date of Online Registration in website: 1st July 2012
For more details see here: http://www.canarabank.com/English/Home.aspx

Saturday, June 9, 2012

CORPORATION BANK CLERKS RECRUITMENT


Corporation Bank invites applications for the post of Probationary Clerks from Indian citizens who have taken the Common Written Examination (IBPS CWE) for Clerical Cadre conducted by IBPS in Nov-Dec, 2011 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS subject to fulfillment of other eligibility criteria.

Number of Jobs: 1550 Probationary Clerks.

Important Dates:
Payment of Application Fees: 12-06-2012 to 26-06-2012
Opening date for Online Registration: 12-06-2012
Last Date for Online Registration: 26-06-2012

Education Requirements –
Graduate in any descipline with 40% marks (SC/ST/VI/HI/OC 35% marks)
Other Essentials - Computer Literacy and Local Language of the State

Age(as on 01.08.2011):Minimum Age: 18 years; Maximum Age: 28 years.
Application Fees: Rs 20/-(SC/ST/VI/HI/OC) and Rs 100/-(OBC/General and others).

Statewise IBPS Score cutoffs and Number of Seats
Download the complete advertisement
Download Payment Receipt Challan Copy

Wednesday, June 6, 2012

UNITED BANK OF INDIA CLERICAL CADRE RECRUITMENT


UNITED BANK OF INDIA
( A Govt. of India Undertaking)
11, Hemant Basu Sarani, Kolkata – 700001

United Bank of India invites Online application for filling up Single Window Operators ‘A’(in Clerical cadre ) posts, from Indian citizens who have appeared at the Common Written Examination for Clerical cadre conducted by IBPS in 2011-12 and have a valid Score card issued by IBPS,Mumbai :

  • Single Window Operators ‘A’  :  751 posts (UR-379, SC-157, ST-52, OBC-163) (PH-23) (Ex.SM-156) in various states, Pay Scale Rs. 7200-19300, Age : 18-28 years
Application Fee : Rs.100/- (Rs.20/- for SC/ST/PWD) to be deposited through CBS at any of the Branches of United Bank of India by means of a Payment challan OR (ii) Through NEFT at any Bank branch.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format available at United Bank's website from 08/06/2012 to 22/06/2012 only.

Please visit http://www.unitedbankofindia.com/English/Recruitment.aspx  for all the details and application format.

FEDERAL BANK CLERK & PO RECRUITMENT

Federal Bank, major Indian Commercial bank in the Private sector with its Headquarter at Kochi, Kerala.It has approx. 952 branches in India and the Bank is also planning to expand its branches network to 1000 and also plan to hire approx. 2000 employees this year and for this Plan to be successful, the bank has invited the online Application form from the IBPS Qualified candidates for their Recruitment as a Clerk and Probationary officer(PO) in their various branches.The important details regarding the Job profile is given below. 
 
Eligibility Criteria for Clerk

Age limit: Below 24 Years

Educational Qualification: Graduation with 55% marks for ( Science Stream) and 50% marks for others and also the valid IBPS Clerk score card.

Note: The Candidate belongs to TN, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Gujarat, Rajasthan, Punjab, Haryana, odisha, Assam, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram and Kerala.states can only apply.

Eligibility Criteria for PO

Age Requirement: Below 26 Years

Educational Criteria: Graduation with 60% marks and the valid IBPS PO score card.
Note: The Candidate belongs to Kerala.states can only apply.

Application Fee: The Fee should be Rs.200 for General category and Rs.50 for reserved category for Clerk and PO vacancies.

Important Dates:

online registration Starts: 11th June 2012
online Registration Ends: 25th June 2012
Payment of Application Fee: From 8th June to 25th June 2012
Date for Edit of Application Form: From 13th June 2012 to 27th June 2012


Click here for more details



GENERAL AWARENESS FOR IBPS EXAMS

                                                           

Tuesday, June 5, 2012

Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam., 2012 Solved Paper

General English 
(Held on 4-3-2012)


Directions—(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage, against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time there was a river. He was …(1)… unfriendly. The river lived alone, and refused to share his water with any fish, plant or animal. Thus his life went on, sadly and filled with loneliness, for many centuries.

One day, a little girl with a fish bowl came to the bank of this river. In the bowl lived Scamp, her favourite little fish. The girl was about to …(2)… to another country, and she wouldn’t be able to take Scamp with her. So she had decided to give Scamp his freedom.

When Scamp …(3)… into the river, he immediately felt the river’s loneliness. He tried talking to the river, but the river asked him to go away. Scamp was a very happy little fish, and he wasn’t going to give up so …(4)…. He spoke to the river again, swam here and there, and finally he started jumping in and …(5)… of the water. The river felt tickled by all the jumping and splashing and …(6)… laughing. After a while, this put the river in such a good mood that he started talking to Scamp. Almost without knowing it, by the end of that day, Scamp and the river and become very good friends.

The river spent that night …(7)… about how much fun it was to have friends, and how much he had missed not having them. He asked himself why he had never had them, but he couldn’t remember. The next morning, Scamp …(8)… the river with a few playful splashes and that was when the river remembered why he had decided to be such an unfriendly river. He remembered that he didn’t like being tickled. He remembered perfectly how he had told everyone to scoot and that he wasn’t going to …(9)… up with all that tickling.

But, remembering how sad and lonely he had felt for so many years, the river realised that although it may sometimes be a bit inconvenient or uncomfortable, it was always …(10)… to have friends, than being lonely.

1. (A) so (B) total (C) very (D) extreme (E) full
Ans : (C)

2. (A) move (B) goes (C) visit (D) transferred (E) toured
Ans : (A)

3. (A) jump (B) fell (C) look (D) dives (E) slip
Ans : (B)

4. (A) long (B) sooner (C) nicely (D) easily (E) lazily
Ans : (D)

5. (A) in (B) beside (C) out (D) below (E) away
Ans : (C)

6. (A) stopped (B) started (C) felt (D) thought (E) heard
Ans : (B)

7. (A) forgetting (B) discuss (C) ignoring (D) thinking (E) gazing
Ans : (D)

8. (A) slept (B) woke (C) talked (D) irritate (E) splash
Ans : (C)

9. (A) live (B) stand (C) sit (D) light (E) put
Ans : (A)

10. (A) better (B) worse (C) sad (D) easy (E) happy
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) Each sentence below has a blank, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

11. Meeta ……… many gifts on her birthday.
(A) get (B) pick (C) received (D) seen (E) have
Ans : (C)

12. Please ……… the website for all the updates.
(A) browsed (B) check (C) surfing (D) think (E) hacked
Ans : (B)

13. The garden was …… of flowers of different kinds.
(A) full (B) grow (C) crowd (D) held (E) smell
Ans : (A)

14. They have ………… us to find another alternative.
(A) tell (B) spoken (C) ask (D) advised (E) help
Ans : (D)

15. Pratik was …… for a bus.
(A) thinking (B) waiting (C) telling (D) reaching (E) jumping
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is No Error the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore errors of punctuation if any).

16. Meghalaya is (A) / also one of (B) / the north-eastern states (C) / of our country. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

17. Santosh has volunteered (A) / to help in organising (B) / the Republic Day function (C) / about his locality. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

18. The actor’s friends (A) / and family had (B) / decided to throw a (C) / surprise party for him. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

19. Health experts since all (A) / over the country were (B) / invited to attend the (C) / conference in the city. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

20. They had (A) / to mortgage their (B) / house in order to (C) / bear these expenses. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

21. They had informed (A) / us that their (B) / Chennai trip was (C) / cancel due to the strike. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

22. All the students (A) / had to attend for the (B) / industrial visit as (C) / it was compulsory. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

23. The king was (A) / amused by the (B) / jester’s response (C) / to his question. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

24. The boy was (A) / accused of stealing (B) / money as well goods (C) / from the shop. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

25. She was be asked to (A) / write a report about (B) / the meeting that (C) / she attended yesterday. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct as your answer.’

26. She has presented (A) her views (B) in a very unique (C) fashion. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

27. She misplaced (A) the book before (B) she could (C) reed (D) it. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

28. There were more (A) than five thousend (B) people (C) in the auditorium. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

29. He has won many awards (A) for his research (B) in the field (C) of ecnomics. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

30. Dadar is none (A) of the most (B) populated areas (C) in Mumbai city. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph then answer the questions given below them.
(1) “Why waste time sharpening your weapons when there’s no danger in sight ?” said the fox, “You’re being foolish”.
(2) A wild boar was sharpening his tusks against a tree.
(3) “My tusks are my weapons,” said the boar, “I am sharpening them so that I can defend myself from any danger.”
(4) Frightened by the boar’s sharpened tusks, he turned towards the fox instead and preyed on him.
(5) A fox passing by, asked him what he was doing.
(6) Just then a tiger appeared on the scene.

31. Which of the following should be the first sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 2
Ans : (E)

32. Which of the following should be the second sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4 (E) 1
Ans : (A)

33. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 3 (E) 1
Ans : (E)

34. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 5
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following should be the last (sixth) sentence in the rearrangement ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 (E) 6
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36 to 50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words / phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A man called Ramaya lived in a small village. Despite being a nice man, he did not have any friends. It was well known in the town that anyone unfortunate enough to look at him first thing in the morning would not be able to have food that day. That was why no one in the town liked encountering Ramaya in the morning, if they could help it. As soon as the king heard this rumour he decided to try it out himself.

He summoned Ramaya to the palace and ordered him to sleep in a room adjacent to his bedchamber. Ramaya had no choice but to follow the king’s order. He feared that the rumour would come true. The next
morning, the first thing the king did after waking up, was to take a look at Ramaya. When the king reached the breakfast table, he saw that the royal chef had forgotten to prepare his favourite dish. This angered him and he refused to have breakfast. After finishing a few important duties in the court, the king went to the dining hall for lunch. The food arrived piping hot. The king had hardly picked up the first morsel when he caught sight of a fly in the food. He left the table in disgust and when the food was prepared again for him, he found that he had lost his appetite. At the dinner table, an ignorant minister started eating before the king had started. This offended the king. He stormed out of the dining hall and refused to come back. As a result, the king could not eat anything at all that day. The enraged king was now convinced that Ramaya was really jinxed. He ordered that Ramaya be hanged. In those days the king’s word was the law. The soldiers had no option but to take Ramaya to the gallows. While on their way to the gallows, they met the court jester. He heard the story from Ramaya. The jester felt that it was an unfair decision and that none of this was Ramaya’s fault. He came up with a plan to save Ramaya from being hanged. He whispered something in Ramaya’s ears. Ramaya nodded before being whisked away.

It was mandatory to grant one last wish to the person who was being hanged. When the soldiers asked Ramaya about his last wish, he asked them to convey a message to the king. He also requested that he be hanged only after hearing the king’s response. “Tell the king that while it may be true that anyone who sees my face first thing in the morning does not get anything to eat that day, it’s also true that if anyone sees the king’s face first thing in the morning, as I did, he has to lose his life. So who’s the greater jinx - the king or I ?” said Ramaya.

On hearing the message, the king was stunned. He realised his foolishness and ordered his soldiers to stop the execution. He summoned Ramaya and offered him gifts. He also requested Ramaya not to say anything about the incident to the public. He was sure that the people of the village wouldn’t take well to the idea of having a jinxed person for a ruler. Ramaya agreed. When the villagers saw Ramaya returning with the gifts, they assumed that the rumour was false and that the king had given the gifts to Ramaya as compensation. They were ashamed of their behaviour and swore that they would never ignore Ramaya.

36. Why had the king summoned Ramaya ?
(A) He wanted to have Ramaya executed
(B) He wanted all the villagers to realize their mistake and be friends with Ramaya
(C) He wanted to test the court jester’s intelligence
(D) He wanted to see Ramaya’s face, the first thing every morning
(E) He wanted to verify whether the rumour about Ramaya was true or false
Ans : (E)

37. According to the rumour, what would happen if someone saw Ramaya’s face, first thing in the morning ?
(A) That person would not get a chance to eat, the whole day
(B) That person would be executed by the king
(C) That person would eat the whole day
(D) That person would receive gifts from the king
(E) That person would become an outcast in the village
Ans : (A)

38. Why did the king refuse to eat breakfast ?
(A) The king had seen Ramaya’s face, first thing in the morning
(B) The royal chef had forgotten to cook the king’s favourite dish
(C) The royal chef had forgotten to prepare Ramaya’s favourite dish
(D) One of the ministers had insulted the king at the breakfast table
(E) The king was on a diet
Ans : (D)

39. What did the king do when he caught sight of a fly in the food during lunch ?
(A) He ignored it and finished the lunch
(B) He fired the chef and asked him to throw the food
(C) He simply left the dining hall in disgust
(D) He ordered his soldiers to kill Ramaya
(E) He asked his ministers to cook another meal
Ans : (C)

40. When was the king convinced that Ramaya was jinxed ?
(A) When he realised that he had not eaten the whole day after he had seen Ramaya’s face the first thing in the morning
(B) When he realised that each time he saw Ramaya, he fell sick
(C) When he heard the rumour that anyone who saw Ramaya’s face first thing in the morning would not get a chance to eat the whole day
(D) When he saw that the chef had not prepared his favourite dish on the day he had seen Ramaya’s face the first thing in the morning
(E) When the soldiers went to him with Ramaya’s final wish
Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following is true according to the given passage ?
(A) Ramaya had many friends in the village
(B) The king had dinner on the day he saw Ramaya’s face first thing in the morning
(C) Ramaya told the villagers that the king was jinxed
(D) One of the ministers had started eating before the king during dinner
(E) None is true
Ans : (D)

42. Arrange the following incidents in a chronological order as they occurred in the passage.
(1) The court jester met Ramaya
(2) Ramaya received gifts from the king
(3) Ramaya slept at the palace
(4) The villagers realised their mistake
(A) 1324 (B) 3214 (C) 3241 (D) 3142 (E) 3124
Ans : (E)

43. What was Ramaya’s last wish ?
(A) He wanted to have a meal with the king
(B) He wanted to talk to the court jester
(C) He wanted to pass on a message to the king
(D) He wanted to speak to a minister
(E) Not mentioned in the passage
Ans : (C)

44. What was the king’s request to Ramaya ?
(A) That Ramaya must accept that he is unlucky
(B) That Ramaya must tell the villagers that the king is very kind
(C) That Ramaya must not tell the villagers that a minister had insulted the king
(D) That Ramaya must not tell the villagers about the incident
(E) That Ramaya must not tell anyone about the gifts he had received
Ans : (D)

45. Who helped save Ramaya from being hanged ?
(A) The court jester
(B) The king
(C) The soldiers
(D) The villagers
(E) The chef
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46 to 48) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in the meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

46. Adjacent to
(A) Far away (B) Beside (C) Opposite to (D) Same as (E) Below
Ans : (B)

47. Caught sight of
(A) Searched for (B) Forgot about (C) Suddenly noticed (D) Held (E) Nabbed
Ans : (C)

48. Unfair
(A) Dark (B) Unhappy (C) Unaware (D) Unreasonable (E) Rational
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 49 and 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

49. Refused
(A) Unused (B) Remembered (C) Agreed (D) Invited (E) Declined
Ans : (B)

50. Ordered
(A) Requested (B) Unplanned (C) Punished (D) Silenced (E) Explained
Ans : (A)