Saturday, April 30, 2011

ING Vysya Bank Recruitment

 
ING Vysya Bank

ING Vysya Bank:Opportunities in Retail &Pvt banking is Inviting applications for recruiting following posts:

Vacancy Details:
Private Bank/Sr.Private Banker- Mumbai,Delhi,Hyderabad,Kolkata,Bangalore
Relationship Manager- Business Banking- Multipule positions across India
Foreign Exchange Service- Multipule positions across India
Corporate Sales Manager- Salary Account- Multipule positions across India
Sales Manager- Liabilities- Multipule positions across India

Qualification:  Graduate/ MBA/ CA/ PG

Click Here for More Details

Punjab National Bank PNB Clerk Exam 2010 Paper

Marketing and Computer Knowledge
(Exam Held on: 4-4-2010)

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
1. Marketing function includes—
(A) Designing new products
(B) Advertisements
(C) Publicity
(D) After sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
2. Lead generation can be resorted to
by browsing—
(A) Telephone directories
(B) Yellow pages
(C) Internet sites
(D) List of existing customers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
3. Effective selling skills depend on—
(A) Effective lead generation
(B) Sales Call Planning
(C) Territory Allocation
(D) Effective communication skills
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
4. Market Information means—
(A) Knowledge level of marketing staff
(B) Information about marketing staff
(C) Information regarding Share market
(D) Knowledge of related markets
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
5. Marketing channels mean—
(A) Delivery period
(B) Delivery time
(C) Delivery outlets
(D) Delivery place
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
6. ‘Buyer Resistance’ means—
(A) Buyer’s interest in the product being sold
(B) Buyer fighting with the seller
(C) Buyer’s hesitation in buying the product
(D) Buyer becoming a seller
(E) Buyer buying the product
Ans : (C)
7. Marketing is the function of—
(A) Sales persons
(B) Production Department
(C) Planning Department
(D) Team leaders
(E) A collective function of all staff
Ans : (E)
8. A DSA means—
(A) Direct Service Agency
(B) Direct Selling Agent
(C) Double Selling Agent
(D) Distribution Agency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
9. Service Marketing is resorted to in—
(A) All manufacturing companies
(B) All production houses
(C) Export units
(D) Insurance companies and banks
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
10. Marketing is—
(A) A skilled person’s job
(B) A one day function
(C) A one time act
(D) Required only when a new product is launched
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
11. Market share refers to—
(A) Share market prices
(B) Price fluctuation in the market
(C) Share issue floated by the company
(D) Share of wallet
(E) Share of business of the company
as compared to peers
Ans : (E)
12. Service Marketing is the same as—
(A) Internet marketing
(B) Telemarketing
(C) Internal Marketing
(D) Relationship Marketing
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)
13. Current Accounts can be freely opened by ………… Find the incorrect answer.
(A) All NRIs
(B) All businessmen
(C) Government departments
(D) Firms and Companies
(E) HUFs
Ans : (E)
14. Buyer Resistance can be overcome by—
(A) Cordial relation between buyer and
seller
(B) Good negotiation
(C) Persuasive communication
(D) Good after sales service
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
15. Cross-selling is useful for canvassing—
(A) Current Accounts
(B) Fixed Deposit Accounts
(C) Student loans
(D) Car loans
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
16. Market segmentation helps to
determine—
(A) Target groups
(B) Sale price
(C) Profit levels
(D) Product life cycle
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
17. The target group for Car loans is—
(A) Auto manufacturing companies
(B) Car dealers
(C) Taxi drivers
(D) Car purchasers
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
18. The best promotional tool in any marketing is—
(A) e-promotion
(B) Public Relations
(C) Viral marketing
(D) Word of mouth publicity
(E) Advertisements
Ans : (E)
19. Customisation results in—
(A) Customer exodus
(B) Customer retention
(C) Customer complaints
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
20. The target group for Education Loans is—
(A) All parents
(B) All Professors
(C) All Research Scholars
(D) All Tutorial Colleges
(E) All College Students
Ans : (E)
21. Find the correct sentence.
(A) Higher the price, higher are the sales
(B) More sales persons lead to more sales
(C) Mission statement is part of a Market Plan
(D) Better sales incentives means better performance
(E) All customers are profitable customers
Ans : (C)
22. Good marketing strategy envisages good and proper—
(A) Product development
(B) Promotion and Distribution
(C) Pricing
(D) Relationship management
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
23. Savings Accounts can be opened by—
(A) All individuals fulfilling KYC norms
(B) All individuals earning more than Rs. 1,00,000 per annum
(C) All individuals above the age of 18
(D) All salaried persons only
(E) All students below the age of 18
Ans : (C)
24. Situation Analysis is useful for—
(A) SWOT Analysis
(B) Analysis of Sales person’s performances
(C) Analysis of capital markets
(D) All of these
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called—
(A) Input
(B) Output
(C) Throughput
(D) Reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. With a CD you can—
(A) Read
(B) Write
(C) Neither Read nor Write
(D) Both Read and Write
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
27. Errors in a computer program are referred to as—
(A) bugs
(B) mistakes
(C) item overlooked
(D) blunders
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
28. Which of the following are computers that can be carried around easily ?
(A) Laptops
(B) Supercomputers
(C) PCs
(D) Minicomputers
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
29. What menu is selected to change font and style ?
(A) Tools
(B) File
(C) Format
(D) Edit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
30. Where is the disk put in a computer?
(A) In the hard drive
(B) In the disk drive
(C) Into the CPU
(D) In the modem
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
31. A computer’s hard disk is—
(A) an arithmetic and logical unit
(B) computer software
(C) operating system
(D) computer hardware
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
32. A compiler is used to translate a program written in—
(A) a low level language
(B) a high level language
(C) assembly language
(D) machine language
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
33. In programming, you use the following keys—
(A) Arrow keys
(B) Function keys
(C) Alpha keys
(D) page up and Page Down keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
34. Which keys enable the input of numbers quickly ?
(A) Function keys
(B) The numeric keypad
(C) Ctrl, shift and alt
(D) Arrow keys
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Files are organized by storing them in—
(A) tables
(B) databases
(C) folders
(D) graphs
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
36. The secret code that restricts entry to some programs—
(A) entry-code
(B) passport
(C) password
(D) access-code
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
37. Advertisements are not required in—
(A) Public Sector banks
(B) Private Sector banks
(C) Government concerns
(D) Profit making companies
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
38. The most common method of entering text and numerical data into a computer system is through the use of a—
(A) plotter
(B) scanner
(C) printer
(D) keyboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
39. Computer programs are also known as—
(A) operating systems
(B) documents
(C) peripherals
(D) applications
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. A collection of unprocessed items is ………
(A) information
(B) data
(C) memory
(D) reports
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
41. ……… is when the more powerhungry components, such as the monitor and the hard drive, are put in
idle.
(A) Hibernation
(B) Power down
(C) Standby mode
(D) The shutdown procedure
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
42. ……… is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.
(A) Tracking
(B) Formatting
(C) Crashing
(D) Allotting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
43. A saved document is referred to as a ………
(A) file
(B) word
(C) folder
(D) project
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
44. Which of the following is the largest unit of storage ?
(A) GB
(B) KB
(C) MB
(D) TB
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
45. The operating system is the most common type of ……… software.
(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
46. A ……… is approximately one billion bytes.
(A) kilobyte
(B) bit
(C) gigabyte
(D) megabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
47. A scanner scans—
(A) Pictures
(B) Text
(C) Both Pictures and Text
(D) Neither Pictures nor Text
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
48. Dumb terminals have terminals and—
(A) Mouse
(B) Speakers
(C) Keyboard
(D) Mouse or Speakers
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
49. The portion of the CPU that coordinates the activities of all the other computer components is the—
(A) motherboard
(B) coordination board
(C) control unit
(D) arithmetic logic unit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
50. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the Internet, is called a(n)—
(A) version
(B) patch
(C) tutorial
(D) FAQ
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

 GENERAL AWARENESS
(EXAM HELD ON : 16-01-2011)

Q:1 What is financial inclusion ?

(1) To provide a permanent employment to the unemployed
(2) To provide a 100 days job to all those who are in need of a job
(3) To provide banking services to all those living in remote areas
(4) To ensure that all financial transactions amounting Rs. 5,000/- and above are done through banks.
(5) To provide finances for all.

Q: 2 Recently the term 3G was very much in news and even a conference on it was organized in India. What is the letter 'G' denotes in 3G ?

(1) Grade
(2) Group
(3) Global
(4) Guild
(5) Generation

Q: 3 Some major banks and financial institutions in various Western countries were to wind up their business and/ or declare themselves in financial problems during last few years. This trend is technically known as _

(1) Devaluation
(2) Deformation
(4) Political backdrop
(5) Globalisation

Q: 4 Which of the following International sports events was organized in Delhi in October 2010 in which several countries participated ?

(1) Asian Games
(2) World Cup Cricket Tournament
(3) Asian Hockey Tournament
(4) Commonwealth Games
(5) None of these

Q: 5 Exporters in India get insurance cover and risk cover from which of the following organizations?

(1) SIOBI
(2) NABARD
(3) ECGC
(4) RBI
(5) None of these

Q: 6 Which of the following places in India does not have a Stock Exchange ?

(1) Kolkata
(2) Ahmedabad
(3) Mumbai
(4) Delhi
(5) Udaipur

Q.7 Hillary Clinton who was in India recently is the U.S. Secretary of--

(1) Commerce
(2) State
(3) Treasury
(4) Defence
(5) None of these

Q.8 If Indian Banking industry had demonstrated its resilience to external shocks in 2008-09, the credit  goes to --

(A) Policies of the RBI & the Govt. of India

(B) Foreign aid/investments to Indian companies

(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (C)

Q: 9 Tembhli village which was in news is in ---

(1) Bihar
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Orissa
(4) West Bengal
(5) Maharashtra

Q:10 Rohan Bopanna who represented Indian in an international event is a----

(1) Billiards Player
(2) Golf Player
(3) Chess Player
(4) Table Tennis Player
(5) Lawn Tennis Player

Q:11 AlBA Women's World Boxing Championship was organized in September 2010 in ---

(I) Rome
(2) New Delhi
(3) London
(4) Vienna
(5) Barbados

Q: 12 Mr. A. K. Antony a Union Minister in the Indian Cabinet recently signed an agreement with South Korea. This means the agreement is for the Cooperation in the field of--

(1) Agriculture
(2) Rural Development
(3) Defence
(4) Steel & Iron
(5) None of these

Q: 13 Sir Mota Singh who was Knighte by the Queen Elizabeth II earlier this year is---

(1) First Sikh Judge in UK
(2) first Sikh Minister in UK
(3) First Indian to become Vice Chancellor in Cambridge
(4) First Indian to become Governor of a State in USA
(5) None of these

Q.14 'Ayodhya' which was in news recently is a place in---

(1) Madhya Pradesh
(2) Bihar
(3) Rajasthan
(4) Jharkhand
(5) Uttar Pradesh

Q.15
Which of the following is the name of a private sector Bank in India?

(1) IDBI Bank
(2) Axis Bank
(3) Corporation Bank
(4) UCO Bank
(5) All are Private Banks

Q.16. The Govt. of India does no! provide any direct financial assistance to which of the following schemes?

(1) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee scheme
(2) Rural Health Mission
(3) Indira Aawas Yojana
(4) Jeevan Sathi Yojana
(5) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana

Q.17. What does the letter'S' denotes in 'AFSPA' ar abbreviation we very often see in newspapers?

(1) Slow
(2) Special
(3) State
(4) Solid
(5) Sovereign

Q.18. Which of the following terms is used in banking and finance?

(1) Abiotic
(2) Demand Deposit
(3) Fat scales
(4) A diabetic
(5) Cathode

Q.19. Which of the following is a food crop?

(1) Maize
(2) Cotton
(3) Palm
(4) Jute
(5) Jatropha

Q.20. Vedanta Alumina is a company operating in the area of ----

(1) Shipping
(2) Mining
(3) Cement
(4) Textiles
(5) Banking

Q.21. Names of which of the following rates/ratios cannot be seen in financial newspapers?

(1) Bank Rate
(2) Repo Rate
(3) Cash Reserve Ratio
(4) Pulse Rate
(5) Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Q.22. An individual visiting UAE will have to make his/her payments in which of the following currencies?

(1) Dirham
(2) Taka
(3) Baht
(4) Peso
(5) Dinar

Q.23. Who, amongst the following is NOT a famous writer?

(1) Sania Mirza
(2) V. S. Naipaul
(3) Chetan Bhagat
(4) Khushwant Singh
(5) Namita Gokhale

Q.24. 'Peepli Live' is a film directed by ---

(I) Anusha Rizvi
(2) Aamir Khan
(3) Kiran Rao
(4) David Dhawan
(5) None of these

Q.25. Which of the following is the Chemical name of the salt we use in our kitchen?

(1) Calcium Carbonate
(2) Calcium Chloride
(3) Sodium Carbonate
(4) Sodium Chloride
(5) Ammonium Sulphate

Q.26. The judges of the Supreme Court of India now retire at the age of---

(1) 58 years
(2) 60 years
(3) 62 years
(4) 65 years
(5) 68 years

Q.27. Operation New Dawn is the beginning of stability in---

(1) Afghanistan
(2) Iran
(3) Sudan
(4) Sri Lanka
(5) Iraq

Q.28. Which of the following books' is written by Kiran Desai ?

(1) A house for Mr. Biswas
(2) 3 Mistakes of My Life
(3) A Tale of Two Sisters
(4) The Inheritance of Loss
(5) Tale of Two Cities

Q.29. Jimena Na";'arrete who was crowned Miss Universe 2010 is from ---

(I) Mexico
(2) Venezuela
(3) Brazil
(4) New Zealand
(5) Italy

Q.30. India has an agreement with USA for producing energy in the form of---

(1) Hydraulic
(2) Thermal
(3) Nuclear
(4) Solar
(5) All of these forms

Q. 31 Which of the following is an economic term?

(1) Plaintiff
(2) Bunker Blaster
(3) Deflation
(4) Lampoon
(5) Zero Hour

Q.32. Which of the following awards is given to sports persons in India?

(1) Shantiswarup Bhatnagar Awards
(2) Arjuna Award
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) None of these

Q.33. Which of the following is the trophy/cup associated with the game of cricket?

(1) Derby
(2) Merdeka Cup
(3) Santosh Trophy
(4) Duleep Trophy
(5) Durand Cup

Q.34. Who amongst the following can take benefit of the Social Security Fund established by the Govt. ofIndia for unorganized workers? .

(1) Primary school teacher
(2) Employee of Sugar Factory
(3) Textile Mazdoor
(4) Rickshaw Puller
(5) Clerk in a factory

Q.35. Shushil Kumar who won a Gold Medal at an international event is a famous---

(1) Wrestling champion
(2) Golf player
(3) Table Tennis Player
(4) Weight lifter
(5) None of these

Q.36. In case a major war breaks out between two nations, which of the following organizations/agencies will be seen in the battle field, in addition to the armies of the fighting parties?

(1) WTO
(2) Red Cross
(3) CARE
(4) OPEC
(5) All of these

Q.37. Which of the following is the abbreviated name associated with food security?

(1) ASHA
(2) PDS
(3) WTO
(4) OPEC
(5) NPA

Q.38. Which of the following is a good and rich source of vitamin 'C' ?

(1) Milk
(2) Radish
(3) Mango
(4) Lemon Juice
(5) Banana

Q.39. Who amongst the following Indian Prime Ministers was honoured Posthumously by the Govt. of Bangladesh for his/her contributions to the independence of the nation?

(1) Rajiv Gandhi
(2) Jawaharlal Nehru
(3) Indira Gandhi
(4) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(5) None of these           

Q.40. Who amongst the following was never a Governor of the RBI?

(1) Bimal Jalan
(2) Y. V. Reddy
(3) Arup Roy Choudhury
(4) C. Rangarajan
(5) D. Subbarao

Answer:

(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 3 (4) 4 (5) 5 (6) 5 (7) 2 (8) 1 (9) 5 (10) 5 (11) 5 (12) 3 (13) 1 (14) 5 (15) 2 (16) 1 (17) 2 (18) 2 (19) 4 (20) 2 (21) 4 (22) 1 (23) 1 (24) 1 (25) 4 (26) 4 (27) 1 (28) 4 (29) 1 (30)  (31) 3 (32) 2 (33) 4 (34) 4 (35) 5 (36) 2 (37) 2 (38) 4 (39) 3 (40) 3

SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM 2011 SOLVED PAPER

COMPUTER AWARENESS
(EXAM HELD ON : 16-01-2011)
 
Q. 1. An email account includes a storage area, often called a(n) __
(1) attachment
(2) hyperlink
(3) mailbox
(4) IP address
(5) None of these

Q. 2. Data becomes __ when it is presented in a format that people can understand and use.
(1) processed
(2) graphs
(3) information
(4) presentation
(5) None of these

Q.3. A set of computer programs that helps a computer monitor itself and function more efficiently isajan __
(1) Windows
(2) System Software
(3) DBMS
(4) Application Software
(5) None of these

Q. 4. An area of a computer that temporarily holds data waiting to be processed is __
(1) CPU
(2) Memory
(3) Storage
(4) File
(5) None of these

Q.5. A __ is a microprocessor-based computing device.
(1) personal computer
(2) mainframe
(3) workstation
(4) server
(5) None of these

Q. 6. You use a(n) __ , such as a keyboard or mouse, to input information.
(1) output device
(2) input device
(3) storage device
(4) processing device
(5) None of these

Q.7. The term __ designates equipment that might be added to a computer system to enhance its functionality.

(1) digital device
(2) system add-on
(3) disk pack
(4) peripheral device
(5) None of these

Q. 8. The instructions that tell a computer how to carry out the processing tasks are referred to as computer __
(1) programs
(2) processors
(3) input devices
(4) memory modules
(5) None of these

Q. 9. RAM can be thought of as the __ for the computer's processor.
(1) factory
(2) operating room
(3) waiting room
(4) planning room
(5) None of these

Q. 10. C, BASIC, COBOL, and Java are examples of __ languages.
(1) low-level
(2) computer
(3) system programming
(4) high-level
(5) None of these

Q.11. __ is the ability of a device to "jump" directly to the requested data.
(1) Sequential access
(2) Random access
(3) Quick access
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these

Q.12. The __ is the amount of data that a storage device can move from the storage medium to the Computer per second.
(1) data migration rate
(2) data digitizing rate
(3) data transfer rate
(4) data access rate
(5) None of these

Q.13. A __ converts all the statements in a program in a single batch and the resulting collection of instructions is placed in a new file.
(1) converter
(2) compiler
(3) interpreter
(4) instruction
(5) None of these

Q.14. One thousand bytes is a __
(1) kilobyte
(2) megabyte
(3) gigabyte
(4) terabyte
(5) None of these

Q.15. 'Benchmark' means __
(1) Benches for customers to sit
(2) Benches for salesmen to sit
(3) Products displayed on a bench
(4) Set standards
(5) All of the above

Q. 16 A Call Centre is __
(1) a meeting place for DSAs
(2) a Training Centre for DSAs
(3) a meeting place for customers
(4) Data Centre
(5) a back office set up where customer queries are answered

Q .17. The sequence of a sales process is __
(1) Lead generation, Call, Presentation & Sale
(2) Sale, Presentation, Lead generation & Call
(3) Presentation, Lead generation, Sale & Call
(4) Lead Generation, Call, Sale & Presentation
(5) There is no sequence required

Q.18. Home loans are granted to -
(1) Individuals
(2) Institutions
(3) Builders
(4) All of these
(5) None of these


Q.19. To 'Close a Call' means __
(1) 'fo end the conversation
(2) To put the phone down
(3) To close the doors
(4) To clinch the sale
(5) To close the business

Q.20. A __ is an additional set of commands that the computer displays after you make a selection from the main menu.
(1) dialog box
(2) submenu
(3) menu selection
(4) All of the above
(5) None of these

Q.21. Information kept about a file includes ----
(1) print settings
(2) deletion date
(3) (1) & (2) only
(4) size
(5) None of these

Q.22. __ provides process and memory management services that allow two or more tasks, jobs, or programs to run simultaneously.
(1) Multitasking
(2) Multithreading
(3) Multiprocessing
(4) Multicomputing
(5) None of these

Q.23. The ALU performs __ operations.
(1) arithmetic
(2) ASCII
(3) algorithm-based
(4) logarithm-based
(5) None of these

Q. 24. A (n) __ is software that helps a computer control itself to operate efficiently and keep track of data.
(1) application system
(2) hardware system
(3) software system
(4) oprating system
(5) None of these

Q.25. 'Customisation' means __
(1) Tailor-made products for each customer
(2) Customers selling goods
(3) Tailor-made products for each staff
4) A selling process
(5) None of these

Q.26. A 'Call' in Marketing language means __
(1) Calling On a salesperson
(2) Calling on a customer
(3) Making a phone-call
(4) Telemarketing
(5) None of these

Q.27. Computers manipulate data in many ways, and this manipulation is called __
(1) upgrading
(2) processing
(3) batching
(4) utilizing
(5) None of these

Q.28. A Marketing Survey is required for __
(1) deciding marketing strategies
(2) deciding Product strategies
(3) deciding pricing strategies
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q.29. The Target Group for Education Loans is ----
(1) all colleges
(2) all parents
(3) research scholars
(4) meritorious students seeking higher education
(5) all of these

Q.30. Cross-selling means __
(1) Selling with a cross face
(2) Cross country marketing
(3) Selling other products to existing customers
(4) Selling to friends
(5) Selling to employees

Q.31. Market Segmentation is useful for---
(1) Preferential marketing
(2) Targeting existing clients
(3) Identifying prospects
(4) Knowing customers' tastes
(5) All of the above

Q.32. The Target Group for Savings Deposit Accounts is __
(1) Newborn babies
(2) students
(3) parents
(4) businessman
(5) all of the above

Q. 33. Market Segmentation can be resorted to by means of __
(1) segmenting by age
(2) segmenting by income
(3) segmenting geographically
(4) all of these
(5) none of these

Q.34. The Target Group for a Car Loan is ---
(1) all auto drivers
(2) all auto dealers
(3) all car owners
(4) any individual needing a car
(5) all of these

Q.35. Market information means ---
(1) knowledge of industries
(2) knowledge of households
(3) knowledge of peers
(4) knowledge of customers' tastes
(5) All of these

Q.36. Credit cards are used for -
(1) Cash withdrawals
(2) Purchase of air tickets
(3) Purchase of consumable items from retail outlets
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q.37. TheTarget Group for Agricultural Loans is __
(1) any farmer
(2) farm labourers
(3) any individual dealing in agricultural or related activity
(4) farmers'societies
(5) all of these

Q.38. The Target Group for Credit Cards is ----
(1) existing cardholders
(2) all graduates
(3) all minors
(4) individuals with taxable income
(5) all of these

Q.39. Market Segmentation means __
(1) segmenting the salesmen
(2) segmenting the employees
(3) segmenting the customers as per their Heeds
(4) segmenting the products
(5) All of these

Q. 40. A 'Target Group' means---
(1) a group of sellers
(2) a group of buyers
(3) a group of products
(4) a group of persons to whom sales should be focused
(5) all of these

Answer :

(1) 3 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 2 (5) 1 (6) 2 (7) 4 (8) 1 (9) 3 (10) 4 (11) 2 (12) 3 (13) 2 (14) 1 (15) 4 (16) 5 (17) 1 (18) 1 (19) 4 (20) 1 (21) 3 (22) 1 (23) 1 (24) 4 (25) 1 (26) 2  (27) 2 (28) 4 (29) 4 (30) 3 (31) 5 (32) 5 (33) 4 (34) 4 (35) 5 (36) 4 (37) 3 (38) 4 (39) 3 (40) 5

Friday, April 29, 2011

Canara Bank P.O. Exam 2009 Solved Paper

GENERAL AWARENESS
 
1. As per the recent reports published in newspapers/magazines, India ranks at a lower level in Hunger Index. The Hunger Index is measured on which of the following indicators?
  1. Child Malnutrition
  2. Rate of Child Mortality
  3. Rate of Literacy
  4. No. of people who are calories deficient
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1,2 and 4
(D) AliI, 2,3 and 4
(E) None of these
2. Who amongst the following economists gave the concept of 'economies of scale',which says 'many goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series'?(A) Edward C. Prescott
(B) Amartya Sen
(C) Gary S. Becker
(D) Edmund S. Phelps
(E) Paul Krugman
3. As per the recent report which of the following countries emerged as India's top trading partner during 2008-09?
(A) Russia
(B) Brazil
(C) USA
(D) China
(E) None ofthese
4. In its mid term review of the economy the Reserve Bank of India pegged the country's economic growth for fiscal year 2008-09 at which of the following levels?(A) 6%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 7%
(D) 7.7%
(E) 8.7%
5. Which of the following countries has elected Joe Biden as its Vice President in its general elections held in November 2008?(A) Britain
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) USA
(E) None of these
6. Very often we read in newspapers/magazines about 'Sovereign Wealth Funds'.Which of the following is/are the correct description of the same?
  1. These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested further to earn profitable returns.
  2. These are the funds, which were accumulated by some/ people over the years buf were not put in active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.
  3. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailouts packages are known as sovereign funds.
(A) Both 2 and 3 only
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1
(E) None of these
7. The Govt. of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Yamuna
(C) Ganga
(D) Kaveri
(E) None of these
8. Very often we read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in news-papers. What was the purpose of promoting SEZs in India?
a. They are established to pro-mote exports.
b. They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.
c. They are established to help poorest of the poors in India as the activities of these zones are reserved only for poors and those living below poverty line.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only3
(D) Both 1 and 2 only
(E) None of these
9. The Asian Cooperation Dialogue Conference of 31 nations was organized in October 2008 in-(A) New Delhi
(B) Seoul(S.Korea)
(C) Beijing(China)
(D) Dhaka(Bangladesh)
(E) Astana(Kazakhastan)
10. The White Tiger is a book written by-
(A) Arnitav Ghosh
(B) Arundhati Roy
(C) V.S.Naipaul
(D) Kiran Desai
(E) Aravind Adiga
11. The Ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with RBI is known as-
(A) Liquidity Ratio
(B) SLR
(C) CRR
(D) Net Demand & Time Liability
(E) None of these
12. A Rs.35000 crore JSW Steel Plant was inaugurated in November 2008 in-
(A) Kota
(B) Nandigram
(C) Pune
(D) Jamshedpur
(E) Salboni
13. The Govt. of India in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief package ofRs.-(A) 1000 crores
(B) 2500 crores
(C) 4000 crores
(D) 5000 crores
(E) 7000 crores
14. Which of the following awards/honours was conferred upon Pt.Bhimsen Joshi recently?
(A) Man of the year
(B) Kala Shikhar Samman
(C) Dada Saheb Phalke Award
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) Bharat Ratna
15. Which of the following Space Craft was launched recently to prepare a 3 dimensional Atlas of the lunar surface and also for chemical mapping of entire lunar surface?
(A) PSLV-II
(B) Chandrayan II
(C) Chandrayan III
(D) Chandrayan-I
(E) None of these
16. As per new revised rules now Foreign Direct Investment in Insurance sector is possible upto the limit of-A) 26%
(B) 40%
(C) 49%
(D) 70%
(E) None of these
17. Who amongst the following players recently became the first ever Indian to win a World Championship in Badminton?(A) P.Gopichand
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Aparna Popat
(D) Nandu M.Natekar
(E) None of these
18. Which of the following countries got Wan chuck as its fifth King recently?
(A) Bhp.tan
(B) Nepal
(C) Japan
(D) Spain
(E) None of these
19. As per the news reports members of the SAARC agreed to establish a'SAARC Food Bank' to ensure food security for members in case of any emergency.Which of the following nations agreed to provide maximum quantity of food for the bank?
(It will provide 1,53,200 tonnes) PDI August/2009/316
(A) India
(B) Bhutan
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Pakistan
(E) None of these
20. The availability of Cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and investments are commonly known as-(A) Cash crunch
(B) Liquidity
(C) Credit
(D) Marketability
(E) None of these
21. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries so that they are allowed to deal smoothly with the problem of fishermen who cross International Maritime Boundary Line?(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Pakistan
(D) Myanmar
(E) None of these
22. The World Development Report 2009 was released recently.Who publishes the World Development Report every year?(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) International Monetary Fund
(D) United Nations Organizations
(E) None of these
23. The 3rd IBSA Summit took place in New Delhi in October 2008.Which of the following statements about the same is/are correct?
  1. Leaders agreed to set a trilateral trade target of US$ 25 million by 2015.
  2. Leaders adopted a 50 point Delhi Summit Declaration which has their views on global governance.
  3. IBSA agreed to provide its membership to China and Russia from 2011
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2&3
(E) None of these
24. As per newspaper reports India's Trade gap is showing a negative growth since last few months 'Trade Gap' means what?(A) Gap between total GDP and total consumption
(B) Gap between total Imports and total Exports
(C) Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months
(D) Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same
(E) None of these
25. Mr. Kgalema Motlanthe who was on a visit to India in October 2008 is the-(A) President of South Africa
(B) Prime Minister of South Africa
(C) President of Kenya
(D) Prime Minister of Kenya
(E) Deputy Director General of UNO
26. As per the reports published in newspapers India allowed to open Cross-LaC Trade after a gap of about 60 years.Which of the following routes was thrown open for the same?(A) Srinagar-Muzaffarabad
(B) Kolkata-Dhaka
(C) Varanasi-Kathmandu
(D) Imphal-Yangon
(E) None of these
27. Who amongst the following scored his 40th century in the Test cricket while playing against Australia in Nagpur in November 2008?(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Ani! Kumble
(C) M. S. Dhoni
(D) Harbhajan Singh
(E) None of these
28. Mr. Mohammed Anni Nasheed's name was in news in recent past as he has taken over as President of-(A) Bangladesh
(B) Maldives
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
(E) None of these
29. The financial turmoil all over the world in recent past has also put some effect on Indian economy.What measures RBI had taken to improve the situation?
  1. SLR has been reduced by one percentage points and at present is 24%
  2. An advance of Rs.25,000 crore provided to banks/financial institutions under the Agricultural debt waiver and Debt Relief Schemes.
  3. RBI allowed banks to raise their capital by issuing Investment Bonds. Almost all big banks have issued such bond in recent past.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2&3
(E) Only 1&2both
30. Shivraj Chauhan has taken over as the Chief Minister of-
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Bihar
(D) Chhattisgarh (E) Delhi
31. 'Jnanpith Award' is given for excellence in the field of-
(A) Music
(B) Literature
(C) Sports
(D) Films
(E) Social Services
32. Who amongst the following recently announced his Retirement from the cricket world?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) M.S.Dhoni
(C) Harbhajan Singh
(D) Rahul Dravid
(E) None of these
33. The second 'BIMSTEC Summit' was organized in November 2008 in-
(A) Dhaka
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Thirnpu
(D) New Delhi
(E) None of these
34. The Govt.of India recently signed an agreement with Malaysia to facilitate employment of workers between the two countries. Which of the following was/were the reason(s) owing to which both the nations decided to make an agreement for the same?
  1. Malaysia is an important destination for Indian workers as Malaysia has almost 1.5 lakh Indian workers.
  2. Most of the Indians are employed with the plantation and construction sectors where they were not getting a fair treatment.
  3. In the last few years there was a strong opposition to employ Indians as the unemployment rate in Malaysia is almost 30%
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1&2only
(E) None of these
35. Besides USA and France,India has also a Civil Nuclear Deal with-
(A) Britain
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
36. Which of the following countries signed an agreement with Russia so that, the country did not attack on it in future and Russia also did not do the same?(A) Georgia
(B) Croatia
(C) Slovakia
(D) Tajikistan
(E) Mangolia
37. The third Commonwealth Youth Games were organized in October 2008 in-
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Bangalore
(C) Pune
(D) Lucknow
(E) Jaipur
38. Miss Karla Paula Henry won which of the following titles 'when she participated in an event in November 2008 in Philippines?
(A) Miss Earth
(B) Miss World
(C) Miss Universe
(D) Miss Asia Pacific
(E) None of these
39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Development as Freedom'?
(A) Arnartya Sen
(B) C.Rangarajan
(C) Y.V.Reddy
(D) Bimal Jalan
(E) None of these
40. Who amongst the following cine star of India became the first upon whom Malaysian title 'Datuk'was conferred recently?(A) Arnitabh Bachchan
(B) Akshay Khanna
(C) Salman Khan
(D) Shah Rukh Khan
(E) None of these
41. Mr.Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the-(A) President of New Zealand
(B) President of Australia
(C) President of Sweden
(D) President of Canada
(E) None of these
42. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is observed on which of the following days?(A) 9th March
(B) 9th February
(C) 9th January
(D) 19th February
(E) 19th January
43. Gold Mines in India are located mainly in-
(A) Kolar
(B) Raniganj
(C) Jadugoda
(D) Veeranam
(E) None of these
44. Ms.Kiran Desai is the author of which of the following books ?
(A) God of small things
(B) The inheritance of loss
(C) Midnight's children
(D) A House for Mr. Biswas
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following is the duration of the present Five-Year Plan ?
(A) 2008-12
(B) 2009-13
(C) 2007-12
(D) 2006-11
(E) None of these
46. Which of the following Ministries was Mr.Shivraj Patil looking after immediately prior to his resignation from the cabinet?
(A) Foreign Affairs
(B) Home Affairs
(C) Rural Development
(D) Agriculture
(E) None of these
47. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India provides a guaranteed 100 days employment to rural employment seekers in India?(A) Bharat Nirman
(B) Swarnjayanti Grameen Rozgar Yojana
(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(D) National Food for Work Programme
(E) None of these
48. 'Satyam'which was in news recently was operating in which of the following areas?(A) Textile
(B) Mining
(C) Pharma
(D) Automobiles
(E) None of these
Answers :
1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (E) 11. (C) 12. (E) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (E) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (D) 41. (D) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (E)

Dena Bank Agriculture Officers Exam 2008 Solved Paper

Agriculture

1. Which of the following crops is tolerant of soil on water salinity?
(A) Date-palm
(B) Cabbage
(C) Orange
(D) Grapes
(E) Peas

2. How many minimum tractor hours per year of 40 H.P. power should be used approximately for purely agricultural use and not for custom service unit to become viable unit ?(A) 500 hrs.
(B) 600 hrs.
(C) 1000 hrs.
(D) 1500 hrs.
(E) 2000 hrs.

3. Drip-irrigation has been most successful for……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Berseem
(D) Lucerne
(E) Grape
4. The percentage of Nitrogen (N) in DAP is……
(A) 46
(B) 26
(C) 18
(D) 80
(E) 30
5. Contract farming consists of……
(A) hiring land by farmers on contract basis for cultivation
(B) supply of agreed quantity of produce to agreed price to the company
(C) company taking on lease basis farmers’ land for cultivation
(D) processing cash crops, vegetables etc. by company and to give back to farmers
(E) providing inputs by company to farmers for improving quality of produce
6. Water held in the soil is not available to the plant, if it is held at tension……
(A) 1/3 atmosphere
(B) below 1/3 atmosphere
(C) 1-3 atmosphere
(D) 3-15 atmosphere
(E) above 15 atmosphere
7. While starting cultivation of medicinal and aromatic plants, first it should be ensured……
(A) cultivation expenses
(B) medicinal value of plants
(C) availability of processing unit
(D) location of the farm
(E) availability of assured profitable market
8. West Coast Tall (WCT) is a variety of……
(A) Paddy
(B) Cashew
(C) Coconut
(D) Arecanut
(E) Coco
9. The phenomenon of Heterosis has been most commercially exploited first in……
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Maize
(D) Sugarcane
(E) Tobacco
10. Processed meat and poultry products have good market. However, their export is mainly hampered due to……
(A) processing not as per demand
(B) breeds are not suitable for export
(C) no proper transport conditions
(D) unhygienic conditions of slaughter houses and animal diseases
(E) domestic market is available easily
11. Arabica is a type of……
(A) flower
(B) horse
(C) coffee
(D) vegetable
(E) fodder
12. Vermicompost is prepared with the help of following……
(A) Bacteria
(B) Earthworms
(C) Ants
(D) Virus
(E) Fungus
13. The average carbon/nitrogen ratio of soils is generally……
(A) 25 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 30 : 1
(D) 14 : 1
(E) None of these
14. In case of Drip irrigation which of the following advantage is observed ?
(A) It saves water
(B) Root system of plant remains in upper layer of soil
(C) Plastic tubes are not harmed by rats
(D) Life of drip irrigation is very long
(E) Where there is lot of rainfall, there are no limitation to such system
15. If PE denotes monthly average value of potential evapo–transpiration and R stands for monthly average rainfall,the period having PE/4 greater than or equal to R,is designated as……
(A) Moist
(B) Humid
(C) Moderately Dry
(D) Severe Drought
(E) Dry
16. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme in its first two years of operation envisaged to cover……
(A) all crops-grown by small and marginal farmers only
(B) all crops-cultivated with the help of crop loans only irrespective of the size of holding of the borrowers
(C) all food crops-cultivated by all types of farmers
(D) only horticultural crops
(E) only seven commercial crops-grown under contract farming system
17. Which one of the following breeds of sheep produces superior carpet wool in India?
(A) Nellore
(B) Nilgiri
(C) Sonadi
(D) Dorset
(E) Jaisalmeri
18. Which one of the following is a European Species of honeybee successfully introduced in India?
(A) Apis mellifera
(B) Apis florea
(C) Apis dorsata
(D) Apis cerana
(E) Apis melipona
19. Which one of the following Indian States/Union Territories accounts for the largest quantity of shrimp production per annum, among all the states of India?(A) West Bengal
(B) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(C) Orissa
(D) Kerala
(E) None of these
20. The hybrid of which one of the following crops was evolved by India using modern DNA techniques and released in February 2005?
(A) Ricinus communis
(B) Solgum vulgare
(C) Pennisetum typhoides
(D) Arachis hypogaea
(E) India has not released any such hybrid so far
21. As per the WTO Uruguay Round Agreement the domestic support creating trade distorting effect on agricultural commodities are included in……(A) Green Box
(B) Amber Box
(C) Pink Box
(D) Blue Box
(E) None of these
22. Which one of the following is the name of the nematode, which lives as internal parasite of buds and foliage of Chrysanthemum and strawberry and causes distortions and crinkling of foliage,and leaf spots?
(A) Aphelenchoides besseyi
(B) Pratilenchus thornei
(C) Meloidogyne incognita
(D) Aphelenchoides ritzemabosi
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following materials do not fit into the list of the raw materials used for feeding the earthworms in the scientific management of Vermiculture?(A) Grass Clippings
(B) Curd
(C) Carrot tops
(D) Lettuce leaves
(E) All are useful
24. A small dairy farm daily produces 100 kilograms of average quality buffalo milk and sells it to an organised dairy at the rate of Rs. 100 per kilogram of total solids contained in the milk.How much would be the daily gross income of the farm from the sale of milk?
(A) Between Rs. 2,000 and Rs. 2,200
(B) Between Rs. 1,250 and Rs. 1,400
(C) Between Rs. 700 and Rs. 825
(D) Between Rs. 1,000 and Rs. 1,100
(E) Between Rs. 1,650 and Rs. 1,850
25. What would be the most probable date of giving the delivery of one day old chicks by a hatchery farmer, who has put the fertile eggs of hen on his well functioning incubator on First of January?(A) February 20
(B) February 5
(C) January 29
(D) January 22
(E) January 15
26. Which one of the following crops is sensitive to salt as well as boron in soil and water?
(A) Grape
(B) Sugar beet
(C) Carrot
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
27. Which one of the following ornamental plants is a native of India and has been introduced into several countries from India?(A) Gladiolus
(B) Orchids
(C) Bougainvillea
(D) Marigold
(E) None of these
28. How much area could be covered for giving one irrigation of 3" depth by a pumpset of one cusec output in the operation of 600 hours, if the water conveyance efficiency is 80 percent?
(A) 180 acres
(B) 320 acres
(C) 240 acres
(D) 160 acres
(E) None of these
29. If in a water tank,the water pressure is 5 kg/cm2, then, pressure head would be:
(A) 50 m
(B) 10 m
(C) 20 m
(D) 5 m
(E) None of these
30. Approximately how many eggs does a female silkworm lay in 24 hours after the proper copulation with the male moth in India?
(A) 200
(B) 1200
(C) 100
(D) 400
(E) None of these
31. The causal organism of Ranikhet disease of fowls is……
(A) Pasteurella multocida
(B) Brucella melitensis
(C) Clorstridium chauvoei
(D) Sporoltrix schenkii
(E) None of these
32. Which one of the following is the name of self-fruitful variety of Prunus domestica grown in India ?
(A) Virginia Gold
(B) Santa Rosa
(C) Grand Duke
(D) Rome Beauty
(E) None of these
33. Other things being suitable, what level of temperature is considered ideal for optimum growth of banana crop?(A) 36°C
(B) 18°C
(C) 30°C
(D) 12°C
(E) 27°C
34. The deficiency of which one of the following vitamins in the ration of Poultry birds increases the Coagulation time of blood and creates the danger of haemorrhage?(A) Vitamin A
(B) Vitamin B1
(C) Vitamin K
(D) Vitamin D
(E) Vitamin B6
35. Which one of the following commodities does fall within the scope of the activities of National Horticulture Mission in India?(A) Tomato
(B) Arecanut
(C) Cashewnut
(D) Coconut
(E) All above horticultural crops
36. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting cultivation?(A) Pennisetum polystachyon
(B) Cenchurus setigerus
(C) Eulalioposis binata
(D) Lasiurus sindicus
(E) Penicum antidotale
37. Which one of the following is the name of a dual purpose Indian cattle breed, which has been exported widely to Latin American countries in the past?(A) Gir
(B) Kankrej
(C) Tharparkar
(D) Nagauri
(E) None of these
38. Iodine deficiency in the Sow’s ratio during pregnancy would be reflected through the symptom of……(A) Lactation failure
(B) Poor reproduction
(C) Birth of dead or weak piglets
(D) Birth of hairless piglets
(E) Birth of blind piglets
39. Which one of the following states has the largest area under Forest cover among all the states given in the list?(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Mizoram
(E) Rajasthan
40. In the literature on the development of GMO crops, which one of the following crops is among those crops that have been designated as Orphan Crops?(A) Soybean
(B) Corn
(C) Cowpea
(D) Canola
(E) None of these
41. Which one of the following would be the probable date of kidding for a she-goat that has been successfully serviced on First of March ?(All dates belong to the same year)
(A) June 12
(B) July 29
(C) August 28
(D) September 15
(E) May 30
42. In India, which one of the following should be considered the right combination of the age in days and live body weight in kg for a lamb for its weaning?
(A) 20 days to 30 days and 6 kg to 7 kg
(B) 45 days to 60 days and 8 kg to 10 kg
(C) 105 days to 120 days and 18 kg to 21 kg
(D) 75 days to 90 days and 12 kg to 15 kg
(E) 55 days to 70 days and 9 kg to 11 kg
43. What is the causal organism of Powdery mildew of Ricinus communis?
(A) Sphacelotheca reiliana
(B) Claviceps microcephala
(C) Leveillula taurica
(D) Puccinia carthami
(E) Fusarium annuum
44. Which one of the following countries has been the largest importer of floriculture products; especially rose and lotus flowers in terms of value from India over last five years among all the countries given in the list ?
(A) Japan
(B) Italy
(C) Netherlands
(D) UAE
(E) USA
45. As a good management practice recommended for the growing cattle in India, what should be the daily requirement of TDN for a cattle of 200 kg live body weight?
(A) 3•2 kg
(B) 1•8 kg
(C) 2•4 kg
(D) 4•0 kg
(E) 0•9 kg
46. Milk fever in cattle is caused due to the deficiency of :
(A) Ca
(B) Fe
(C) Vit. ‘D’
(D) N
(E) None of these
47. The cake of which one of the following materials prepared with the comparable processing
technology, contains the largest percentage of ‘N’ plant nutrient among all the materials given in the list?
(A) Coconut
(B) Neem
(C) Palm nut
(D) Mahua
(E) Karanj
48. In respect of total foodgrains production during 2007-08 in India, which is correct in production (million tonnes)?
(A) 230•67
(B) 207•00
(C) 217•85
(D) 200•00
(E) None of these
49. Which one of the following feeding material is usually relished by the goats in India?
(A) Hay prepared from forest grasses
(B) Straw of Sorghum vulgare
(C) Silage of Sorghum vulgare
(D) Straw of Phaseolus aureus
(E) None of these
50. During last five years, which of the following Institutions have extended the largest amount of fresh credit for agriculture in India among all the institutions given in the list?
(A) NABARD (Direct credit)
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Cooperative Banks
(D) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
(E) Regional Rural Banks and Local Area Banks
Answers :
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (C) 6. (E) 7. (E) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (E) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (E) 21. (E) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (B) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (B) 31. (E) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (E) 36. (A) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (B) 41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (E) 45. (B) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (E)

Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers 2008 Solved Paper

Professional Knowledge(Agriculture)
 
1. How many mango trees will be accommodated with a spacing of 5•0 m x 5•0 m in an area one Hectare?
(A) 400 tree/ha
(B) 750 tree/ha
(C) 800 tree/ha
(D) 850 tree/ha
(E) 900 tree/ha
2. Of the Total Net Bank Credit (NBC) of the Public Sector Banks at the end of March 2007, what is the share of Agricultural Lending (Direct and Indirect)?
(A) 13•6 per cent
(B) 14•6 per cent
(C) 15•6 per cent
(D) 16•6 per cent
(E) 17•6 per cent
3. What is the average yield per lactation in buffalo in India?
(A) 1200 kg
(B) 1250 kg
(C) 1300 kg
(D) 1350 kg
(E) 1400 kg
4. Which one of the following Districts of Andhra Pradesh is considered as the ‘Hub of Fresh Fish Farming’?
(A) Nellore
(B) Guntur
(C) Krishna
(D) Godavari
(E) Anantpur
5. At present, per capita availability of milk in India is about—
(A) 200 gram per day
(B) 210 gram per day
(C) 215 gram per day
(D) 220 gram per day
(E) 225 gram per day
6. Under the cold storage, this crop requires 0-1 degree Celsius temperature and 98–100 per centhumidity ……… .
(A) Brinjal
(B) Bhindi
(C) Peas
(D) Grape
(E) Banana
7. This Hybrid variety of Sorghum (Jowar) is high yielding, tolerant to shoot fly, stemborer, with good roti making qualities suitable for Maharashtra state under Kharif and Rabi Seasons—
(A) AKSV 13 R
(B) SPV 1155 (Variety)
(C) SHD 9690 (Hybrid)
(D) DSV 5 (Variety)
(E) DSV 4 (Variety)
8. Which one of the following Agrofood sector in India has ‘Highest Level of Processing’ (percentage of total production)?
(A) Fruits and Vegetables
(B) Milk and Milk Products
(C) Buffalo Meat
(D) Poultry Product
(E) Marine Products
9. This Micro Finance Institution (MFI) in India, is one of the fastest growing MFI in the world with annual growth rate of 200 per cent—
(A) PRADHAN
(B) BASIX
(C) SKS
(D) MYRADA
(E) Sadaguru Seva Trust
10. This Sunflower Hybrid Variety is tall (150 cm–180 cm), early in maturity (95 days), yields 1•7 tonnes to 2•0 tonnes per hectare, is recommended for cultivation at all India level—
(A) KBSH 44 (Hybrid)
(B) KBSH 41 (Hybrid)
(C) KBSH 42 (Hybrid)
(D) LSFH 35 (Maruti-Hybrid)
(E) PSFH 118 (Hybrid)
11. As on March 2007, of the total Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) issued to farmers by Formal Financial Institutions in India, the share of commercial banks is about—
(A) 37 per cent
(B) 45 per cent
(C) 47 per cent
(D) 49 per cent
(E) 51 per cent
12. During the last four decades, there had ‘Not been any meaningful gain in production’ of this group of crops in India ……… .
(A) Oilseed crops
(B) Plantation crops
(C) Aromatic and Medicinal plants
(D) Horticultural crops
(E) Pulse crops
13. Which one of the following countries, ranked first in the Inland Fisheries production in 2004-05?
(A) Japan
(B) United States
(C) China
(D) India
(E) Thailand
14. What percentages of total cultivable area in India, is presently under ‘Fodder’ production?
(A) 3.60 per cent
(B) 4.60 per cent
(C) 5.60 per cent
(D) 6.60 per cent
(E) 7.60 per cent
15. This country ranked first in production of ‘Mushrooms’ in the world—
(A) China
(B) Nepal
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Indonesia
(E) Brazil
16. In which one of the following states, more than 2,000 ‘Vermicomposting units’ started by
individuals and/or organization in rural and urban centres?

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
17. Nearly 35 per cent of the total ‘Fish Processing Facilities’ in India is concentrated in this state—
(A) Goa
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Karnataka
18. This is a premier Institute/Board/Authority set up by Government of India for providing technical and financial support for creation of postharvest infrastructure for Horticultural crops in India—
(A) APEDA
(B) NCDC
(C) NHB
(D) MPEDA
(E) None of these
19. Which one of the following crops you will suggest to a Big Farmer for getting higher yields and good income under the ‘Protected cultivation’ or under ‘Green-House condition’?
(A) Coloured Capsicum
(B) Vegetable Nursery
(C) Brinjal
(D) Sweet Corn
(E) Lettuce
20. Which one of the following Private Corporate Companies in India is a leader in organized sector producing ‘Potato chips’ in India?
(A) ITC
(B) HLL
(C) Clean Food
(D) Pepsi Co.
(E) GD Foods
21. In which one of the following Indian states, percentage of total cultivable area under Horticultural crops is only 2.75 per cent ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) Uttar Pradesh
22. What percentage of ‘All Economically Productive women population’ in India are engaged in Agriculture including animal husbandry and fisheries?
(A) 38 per cent
(B) 48 per cent
(C) 58 per cent
(D) 68 per cent
(E) 78 per cent
23. In which year, the ‘Varsha Bima Yojana’ (Insurance against the adverse incidence of rainfall) was started in India?
(A) 2004
(B) 2005
(C) 2006
(D) 2007
(E) 2008
24. Which one of the following states, the extent of financial exclusion is between 50 to 75 per cent?
(A) Bihar
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Jharkhand
(E) West Bengal
25. A field of work in which people aim to improve the access of rural communities to efficient,sustainable financial services is known as or categorized as—
(A) Agricultural Finance
(B) Rural Finance
(C) Micro Finance
(D) Financial Institution
(E) Financial Intermediary
26. The Science of cultivation and harvesting of fruits is called ‘Pomology’, however, of the following fruits, this fruit crop presently is not covered under the ‘Pomology’—
(A) Water-melon
(B) Banana
(C) Strawberry
(D) Sapota
(E) Custard Apple
27. The ‘Productivity of Banana’ (yield per hectare) is highest in this state—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Maharashtra
(E) Gujarat
28. Pepsi Co. started Contract farming in Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh for preparation of—
(A) Tomato purees
(B) Basmati Rice
(C) Groundnut Butter
(D) Sunflower Oil
(E) Chilli Paste for Export
29. At present, how many National Research Institutes are working on Development of Products/crops under ‘Agricultural Biotechnologies’ in India?
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 35
(E) 40
30. ‘Shifting Cultivation’ is practiced in India covering about 14.66 lakh hectare area, where in this state ranked first with 3.75 lakh hectare—
(A) Assam
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Manipur
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Tripura
31. Which one of the following flower crops is native of India?
(A) Gladious
(B) Bougainvillea
(C) Tuberose
(D) Orchids
(E) All these
32. What is the Total Plan allocation (Rs. crores) for development of Rainfed/Dryland Agriculture in the XIth Five Year Plan Period (2007-08 to 2011-2012)?
(A) Rs. 65,000 crore
(B) Rs. 70,000 crore
(C) Rs. 75,000 crore
(D) Rs. 80,000 crore
(E) Rs. 85,000 crore
33. As on March 31, 2007, how many of the Public Sector Banks had achieved Direct Agricultural Lending Target (13.5 per cent of Net Bank Credit) stipulated by the RBI?
(A) Eight
(B) Nine
(C) Ten
(D) Eleven
(E) Twelve
34. This ‘Mango Hybrid Variety’ is early maturity, dwarf and having attractive colour, suitable for Chotanagpur Region’ for the India—
(A) Amrapali
(B) Safed Maldah
(C) Malika
(D) Gulab Khas
(E) Ratna
35. Production period in case of tea after gestation period is to the extant of …… .
(A) 100 years
(B) 50 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 10 years
(E) 5 years
36. Recently, this Public Sector Bank, had launched an innovation called ‘Village Knowledge Centre’ wherein technology is used to help the farmers improve his productivity—
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) United Bank of India
(D) United Commercial Bank
(E) Union Bank of India
37. As on 31 March, 2008, which one of the following Microfinance Programmes have covered the largest number of BPL/poor families in India?
(A) SHG-Bank Linkage Programme
(B) SIDBI Foundation for Micro Credit (SFMC)
(C) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh (RMK)
(D) Friends of Women’s World Banking (FWWB)
(E) Rashtriya Grameen Vikas Nidhi (RGVN)
38. Which one of the following is the name of a fungicide which can move mainly upwards within the plant and kill the pathogen away from the point of application?
(A) Semesan
(B) Demosan
(C) Cuprosan
(D) Tulisan
(E) Ceresan
39. As on March 2008, how many ‘No Frill Accounts’ were opened by Banks under Financial Inclusion?
(A) 12 million
(B) 13 million
(C) 14 million
(D) 15 million
(E) 16 million
40. This state is the Leading Producer of Vegetables in India contributing around 19 per cent of country’s production from 17 per cent of the total area under vegetable—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) West Bengal
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
41. According to the RBI Report (2001-02), this Banking Region of the country has ‘Highest Flow of Institutional Credit for Agriculture’ in terms of amount of credit extended in Rs. per     hectare of Gross Cropped Area—
(A) Northern Region
(B) North-Eastern Region
(C) Eastern Region
(D) Western Region
(E) Southern Region
42. Based on the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India (RBI, 2007), the number of rural branches of scheduled Commercial Banks in India as on 30th June, 2007, were—
(A) 32,303
(B) 32,121
(C) 30,775
(D) 30,500
(E) 30,633
43. At present (2006), the estimated population of Tractors (Number of Tractors) in India is about—
(A) 28 lakhs
(B) 29 lakhs
(C) 30 lakhs
(D) 31 lakhs
(E) 32 lakhs
44. This being the only country in the world producing all four known commercial varieties of silk viz.,Mulberry, Tasar, Eri and Muga—
(A) China
(B) Brazil
(C) Japan
(D) India
(E) Korean Republic
45. Which one of the following Pearl Millet (Bajra) variety is early maturity, with high yield and
suitable for Haryana State under irrigated and rainfed situation?

(A) GHB-757
(B) HHB-146
(C) GHB-538
(D) HHB-94
(E) RHB-121
46. Of the 31 Districts identified in four states as having higher incidence of farmers suicides due to economic distress. How many of the 31 economically distress districts belonged to Andhra Pradesh?
(A) 10 Districts
(B) 12 Districts
(C) 14 Districts
(D) 16 Districts
(E) 18 Districts
47. Approximately, what percentage of Total Grape produced in India every year dried for Raising Purpose?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 12 per cent
(C) 14 per cent
(D) 16 per cent
(E) 18 per cent
48. The Head Quarter of ‘National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) which was established on 10th July, 2006 for realizing full potential of Indian Fisheries sector is located at—
(A) Rajendranagar (Hyderabad) A.P.
(B) Cochi (Kerala)
(C) Mangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(E) Bhubaneshwar (Orissa)
49. This Central Cattle Breeding Farm is producing ‘HFx Tharparkar Crossbred Bulls’ for breeding purpose in India—
(A) Andeshnagar (U.P.)
(B) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(C) Hassergatha (Karnataka)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Alamdhi (Tamil Nadu)
50. Which one of the following countries, ‘Annual Per Capita Consumption’ of Wine is highest (50litres)?
(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) USA
(D) France
(E) Germany
Answers:
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11 .(A) 12. (E) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21 .(B )22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (D) 28. (B) 29.  (C) 30 .(E) 31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35 .(D) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (E) 40. (B) 41. (E) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (A) 50. (C)

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers 2009 Solved Paper

Professional Knowledge (Agriculture)

1. This ‘Biofertilizer’ is a nitrogen fixing micro-organism, beneficial for non-leguminous as well as for vegetable crops—
(A) Rhizobium (RHZ)
(B) Azotobacter (AZT)
(C) Azospirillum (AZS)
(D) Blue Green Algae (BGA)
(E) Phosphate Solubilising (PSB) mobilizing bacteria
2. What percentage of total area under Banana cultivation in India presently, is cultivated by using Tissue-cultured (GMO) plantlets ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 15 per cent
(C) 20 per cent
(D) 25 per cent
(E) 30 per cent
3. As per the recent ‘Micro-credit Summit (2007)’, what percentage of total Micro Finance Institutions (MFls) in India serves less than, 10,000 clients (number of clients per MFI) ?
(A) 70 per cent
(B) 75 per cent
(C) 80 per cent
(D) 85 per cent
(E) 90 per cent
4. Fisheries Sector in India contributes what percentage of Agricultural—‘Gross Domestic Product’ (GDP), as on March 2007 ?
(A) 2·5 per cent
(B) 3·5 per cent
(C) 4·5 per cent
(D) 5·5 per cent
(E) 6·5 per cent
5. This agricultural product/horticultural crop requires 2 degree Celsius temperature and 90 per cent humidity for storing in the cold storage—
(A) Mango pulp
(B) Roses
(C) Mushroom
(D) Milk Products
(E) Fish Products
6. The plan outlay for Irrigation Sector to total plan outlay in India was highest (12·5 per cent) in this Five Year Plan (FYP)—
(A) VIth Five Year Plan
(B) VIIth Five Year Plan
(C) VIIIth Five Year Plan
(D) IXth Five Year Plan
(E) Xth Five Year Plan
7. The recommended ratio of use of NPK, the chemical fertilizer by farmers in India is—
(A) 2:2:2
(B) 3:2:1
(C) 4:2:1
(D) 5:2:1
(E) 6:2:1
8. This state is a leader in production and export of the Gherkins (Hybrid Cucumber) under the Contract Farming—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) Maharashtra
9. What should be the optimum spacing (in meters) for planting ‘Pusa Nanha’ variety of Papaya under the High Density Planting ?
(A) 1·25 m × 1·25 m
(B) 1·50 m × 1·50 m
(C) 1·75 m × 1·75 m
(D) 2·00 m × 2·00 m
(E) 2·50 m × 2·50 m
10. Dramatic increase in food prices world over had severe consequences for third world countries (FAO, 2008). How many countries in the world are now facing food crisis, because of this phenomenon?
(A) 35 countries
(B) 36 countries
(C) 37 countries
(D) 38 countries
(E) 39 countries
11. How many outbreaks of ‘Avian Influenza (H5N1)’ were recorded in West Bengal and Tripura during January 2008 and May 2008 ?
(A) 37
(B) 39
(C) 40
(D) 41
(E) 42
12. According to Dr. C. Rangarajan ‘Committee on Financial Inclusion (2007)’, what percentage of Rural Population in India holds Bank Account ?
(A) 18 per cent
(B) 24 per cent
(C) 31 per cent
(D) 35 per cent
(E) 40 per cent
13. Which one of the following Indian States is the largest beneficiary or gainer of the SGSY–credit extended by Banks during 2006–07 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
14. This variety of Tomato is highyielding with good quality fruits and suitable for Jharkhand State for cultivation-
(A) Swarna Lalima
(B) Swarna Shyamali
(C) Swarna Pratibha
(D) Swarna Shree
(E) Swarna Manohar
15. How many plants/trees of Amrapali variety of mango could be profitably accommodated, when planted at 5·0 m × 5·0 m (square method) per hectare ?
(A) 1,400 plants
(B) 1,500 plants
(C) 1,600 plants
(D) 1,700 plants
(E) None of these
16. Which one of the following Brinjal hybrid varieties recently released suitable for U.P. Punjab, Bihar and Jharkhand—
(A) Kashi Sandesh
(B) Swarna Shakti
(C) Kashi Ganesh
(D) HA BH-17
(E) HA BH-3
17. ‘Sweta Seedless’ grape variety recently released by IIHRBangalore, is suitable for growing in—
(A) North India
(B) South India
(C) Western India
(D) Eastern India
(E) All over the country
18. Which one of the following rice/paddy hybrid varieties having superfine grain, aromatic, matured within 120-125 days and recently released for cultivation in Haryana, Delhi and Uttarakhand ?
(A) PA 6201
(B) Pusa RH 10
(C) KRH2
(D) RH 204
(E) Pant Sankar Dhan 3
19. Rabi Sorghum is an important crop suitable for ‘Rainfed Ecosystem’ of this State—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Gujarat
(D) Bihar
(E) Tamilnadu
20. This ‘Agro-Ecosystem’ is characterized by low, erratic rainfall with high coefficient of variation and frequent droughts in India—
(A) Irrigated agro-ecosystem
(B) Arid agro-ecosystem
(C) Coastal agro-ecosystem
(D) Rainfed agro-ecosystem
(E) Hill and Mountain agroecosystem
21. ‘Leaf Rust’ is a serious disease of this crop and till date, there is no effective and ecologically safe fungicide for controlling this disease—
(A) Sweet Potato
(B) Grape
(C) Rice
(D) Wheat
(E) Sorghum
22. What is botanical (Scientific) name of Safed Musli–a medicinal plant grown almost all over India ?
(A) Chlorophytum borivilianum
(B) Curculigo orchioides
(C) Piper longum
(D) Solanum surattense
(E) None of these
23. Central Institute of Post-Harvest Engineering and Technology is located at—
(A) Abohar (Punjab)
(B) Ludhiana (Punjab)
(C) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(E) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
24. Which one of the following Castor hybrids, you will suggest for getting good yields for rainfed and irrigated areas of Rajasthan State ?
(A) RHC 1 (VP-1 × TMV5-1)
(B) DCH 6 (JP 65 × JI 96)
(C) DCH 519 (M574 × DCS 78)
(D) DCH 177 (DCP 9 × DCS 9)
(E) None of these
25. Which one of the following ‘mixed cropping’ pattern you would suggest to the farmers for getting higher economic benefits ?
(A) Bhindi + Spongegourd
(B) Mango + Turmeric
(C) Mango + Colocasia
(D) Mango + Groundnut
(E) Colocasia + Turmeric
26. Which one of the following States has created ‘Organic Commodities Board’ to promote and restore value of foodcrops, which are mostly grown on marginal lands ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) Uttarakhand
27. The Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute is one of the premier Institute of Animal Husbandry, is located at (HQ)—
(A) Hessarghatta (Karnataka)
(B) Sunabada (Orissa)
(C) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Andeshnagar (Uttarakhand)
28. What percentage of total cultivable area in India is under ‘Horticultural Crops’ ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 11 per cent
(C) 12 per cent
(D) 13 per cent
(E) 14 per cent
29. ‘National Agricultural Insurance Scheme’ (NAIS) was in operation in India since—
(A) Rabi season 1999–2000
(B) Kharif season 1998–1999
(C) Rabi season 2000–2001
(D) Kharif season 2000–2001
(E) None of these
30. ‘Pusa Arunima’ is an improved hybrid variety of this crop relased by IARI, New Delhi—
(A) Mango
(B) Guava
(C) Grape
(D) Citrus
(E) Pomegranate
31. As on 2007, how many Indian States/Union Territories (UTs) have partially modified their respective Acts under the ‘Agricultural Marketing Reforms’ ?
(A) 12 States/UTs
(B) 13 States/UTs
(C) 14 States/UTs
(D) 15 States/UTs
(E) 16 States/UTs
32. What is the total ‘Export Earnings’ (Rs. crore) in 2004-05 from livestock, poultry and related products in India ?
(A) Rs. 2200 crore
(B) Rs. 2250 crore
(C) Rs. 2300 crore
(D) Rs. 2350 crore
(E) Rs. 5150 crore
33. Which one of the following States is leading one (Ranked first) in production of ‘Cut Flowers’ in India ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) West Bengal
34. To accommodate 277 plants of ‘Acid Lime’ in one hectare area, what should be the spacing between two plants ?
(A) 5·5 m × 5·5 m
(B) 6·0 m × 6·0 m
(C) 6·5 m × 6·5 m
(D) 7·0 m × 7·0 m
(E) None of these
35. Which one of the following ‘Maize Hybrids’, you will suggest to the farmers of Punjab State for growing in ‘Rabi season’ for Higher Yields ?
(A) Vivek Hybrid
(B) Vivek Hybrid 15
(C) Hybrid Sheetal
(D) Deccan 115
(E) Pratap Hybrid Makka 1
36. According to ‘National Sample Survey Organisation’ (NSSO 2006), which one of the following Information Sources is most availed by the Indian farmers in getting farm information ?
(A) Radio/TV
(B) Fram Input Dealers
(C) Progressive Farmers
(D) Krishi Vigyan Kendras
(E) Agricultural University Specialist
37. More than 40 per cent of the 197 Private Sugar Mills in India are located in this State—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka
38. What is the subsidy component to the total loan amount/total investment available to SC, ST, woman and other disadvantaged sections candidates under the scheme of ‘Establishing Agriclinic and Agribusiness Centres’ by the Agri/Vet/Horticultural graduates ?
(A) 25 per cent
(B) 33·33 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 60 per cent
(E) 80 per cent
39. In which one of the following years, the NABARD was established in India as an Apex Financial Institution for Rural and Agricultural Development ?
(A) 1980
(B) 1981
(C) 1982
(D) 1983
(E) 1984
40. As per the RBI’s directives, Banks should not insist upon the margin/collateral security for the loans to borrowers upto the limits of—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 75,000
(C) Rs. 1,00,000
(D) Rs. 1,25,000
(E) Rs. 1,50,000
Answers:
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (E) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (E) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)

Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers 2008 Paper

Reasoning
 
1. ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—(A) 45
(B) 14
(C) 42
(D) 38
(E) 47
2. What should come next in the following number sequence ?2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5
2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) None of these
3. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each of them has a different height, who among them will be the third from top when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?(A) R
(B) P
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) None of these
4. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped walking ?(A) South
(B) South-West
(C) South-East
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) B D
(B) C E
(C) G I
(D) F H
(E) NL
6. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?
2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 3
5 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
7. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits of the number 4671358, which is the perfect sequare of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the digit in the tenth place of that two-digit odd number ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’ as the answer and if more than one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer—(A) 2
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) O
(E) X
8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Who among them is the oldest ?(A) S
(B) R
(C) P
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
9. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’ written in that code ?(A) H A F $
(B) A F H $
(C) A D F $
(D) B H F $
(E) None of these
10. If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then— 20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?(A) 18
(B) – 6
(C) – 12
(D) – 18
(E) None of these
11. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather”. How is the boy related to Meena ?(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
12. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N. is sister of M. How is B related to N ?(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) Fruit
(B) Flower
(C) Leaf
(D) Petal
(E) Tree
14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) 26
(B) 34
(C) 72
(D) 46
(E) 38
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) Cuckoo
(B) Crow
(C) Bat
(D) Parrot
(E) Sparrow
16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer—(A) E
(B) A
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y
Directions (Q. 18 to 24)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statements : Some blades are papers. Some papers are books. Some books are pens.
Conclusions :I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades.
III. Some pens are blades.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) None follows
(E) Only II and III follow
19. Statements : Some pencils are marbles. All marbles are buses. Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions :I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only either I or III and II follow
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these
20. Statements : Some trees are jungles. Some jungles are flowers. All flowers are streets.
Conclusions :I. Some streets are jungles.
II. Some streets are trees.
III. Some flowers are trees.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these
21. Statements : All desks are tables. All tables are chairs. Some chairs are sofas.
Conclusions :I. Some sofas are desks.
II. Some chairs are desks.
III. Some tables are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
22. Statements : Some cycles are bikes. No bike is flower. All flowers are goats.
Conclusions :I. No goat is cycle.
II. Some flowers are cycles.
III. Some goats are bikes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
23. Statements : All rivers are hills. All hills are rocks. Some rocks are sticks.
Conclusions :I. Some sticks are hills.
II. Some sticks are rivers.
III.Some rocks are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow
24. Statements : All tyres are cars. All wheels are cars. All cars are trains.
Conclusions :I. All tyres are trains.
II. Some trains are wheels.
III. Some trains are cars.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) All follow
Directions (Q.25 to 32)—In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of symbols and digits lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following codes and conditions and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letter:B M K A T R E U N H F I WD P
Digit/Symbol Code:7 % 5 ©6 9 8 2 @ 1 # $ 3 ♦ 4

Conditions:(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as thecode for the vowel.(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, codes for these two are to beinterchanged.(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.Now based on the above, find out coded form of the letter groups given in each question.
25. RNWDEF(A) 9 @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(B) # @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(C) # @ 3 ♦ 8 9
(D) # 3 ♦ @ 8 #
(E) None of these
26. MATRBW(A) % © 6 9 7 3
(B) 3 © 6 9 7 3
(C) % © 6 9 7 %
(D) 3 © 6 9 7 %
(E) None of these
27. EDPKTA(A) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 ©
(B) © ♦ 4 5 6 8
(C) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 8
(D) 8 ♦ 5 4 6 ©
(E) None of these
28. ABUHFI(A) © 2 1 7 # $
(B) © 7 2 1 # ©
(C) $ 7 2 1 # $
(D) © 7 2 # 1 $
(E) None of these
29. WPTMBI(A) $ 4 6 % 7 3
(B) 3 4 6 % 7 $
(C) 3 4 6 % 7 3
(D) $ 4 6 % 7 $
(E) None of these
30. FHITWU(A) # 1 $ 6 3 #
(B) 2 1 $ 6 3 2
(C) # 1 # 6 3 2
(D) 2 1 $ 6 3 #
(E) None of these
31. HUDBRE(A) 1 2 7 ♦ 9 8
(B) 1 2 ♦ 7 9 8
(C) 8 2 ♦ 7 9 1
(D) 8 ♦ 2 7 9 1
(E) None of these
32. IMPNWK(A) 5 % 4 @ 3 $
(B) $ % 4 @ 3 5
(C) $ % 4 @ 3 $
(D) 5 % 4 @ 3 5
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 33 to 40)—Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input :
51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house
Step I: 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house
Step II: 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house
Step III: 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house
Step IV: 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house
Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
33. Step II of an input is :18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
34. Input:72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey How many steps will take to complete the rearrangement ?(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
35. Input:nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56 Which of the following will be step III ?(A) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
(B) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
(C) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
(D) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
(E) None of these
36. Step II of an input is:16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town Which of the following will be step V ?(A) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
(B) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(C) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these
37. Step III of an input is 15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37 Which of the following is definitely the input ?(A) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
(B) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
(C) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
38. Input:milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53 Which of the following steps will be the last but one ?(A) VI
(B) V
(C) VII
(D) VIII
(E) None of these
39. Step III of an input is:36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen How many more steps will required to complete the rearrangement?(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these
40. Input:new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 joinHow many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 41 to 45)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call center. Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three different shifts I,II and III with at least two of them in each shift.R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.
41. Which of the following is W’s day off ?(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
42. Which of the following is R’s day off ?(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
(E) None of these
43. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II ?(A) RP
(B) RV
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
44. Which of the following is Q’s day off ?(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) None of these
45. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I ?(A) RV
(B) RP
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Directions (Q. 46 to 50)—In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement give the answer—(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either I or II is implicit.
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(E) If both I and II are implicit.
46. Statement : A nationalized bank issued an advertisement in the national dailies asking the eligible candidates for applying for 100 posts of chartered accountants.
Assumptions:I. The eligible chartered accountants may respond to the advertisement.
II. There may be adequate number of eligible chartered accountants who may want to join a nationalized bank.
47. Statement:The municipal authority announced before the onset of monsoon that the roads within the city will be free of potholes during monsoon.
Assumptions:I. The roads were repaired so well that potholes may not reappear.
II. People may not complain even if the potholes reappear.
48.Statement:“Our Europe Holiday Package costs less than some of the holiday Packages within the country”—An advertisement by an Indian travel company.
Assumptions:I. People may prefer to travel to foreign destinations than to the places within the country at comparable cost.
II. People generally take their travel decisions after getting information from such advertisements.
49.Statement:The retail vegetable vendors increased the prices of vegetables by about 20 per cent due to non-availability of vegetables at lower prices at the wholesale market.
Assumptions:I. The customers may totally stop buying vegetables at higher prices.
II.The customers may still buy vegetables from the retail vendors.
50.Statement:A large number of students and parents stood in the queue to collect forms for admission to various under-graduate courses in the college.
Assumptions:I. The college authority may be able to admit all those who stood in the queue.
II.The college authority may have adequate number of forms for all those standing in the queue.
Directions (Q. 51 to 56)—Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given
below:M 4 E T % J 9 I B @ U 8 © N # W F 1 V 7 ♦ 2 A H 3 Y 5 $ 6 K

51.Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth fom the right end of the above arrangement ?(A) A
(B) %
(C) I
(D) Y
(E) None of these
52.What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?4 T % 9 B @ 8 N # F V 7 ?
(A) 2 H 3
(B) 2 H Y
(C) ♦ A H
(D) ♦ A 3
(E) None of these
53.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?(A) J I T
(B) 3 5 A
(C) $ K Y
(D) A 3 ♦
(E) 8 © @
54.How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
55.How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a consonant ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
56.How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant ?(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Directions (Q. 57 to 63)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.
57. Statements : M © T, T @ J, J # D
Conclusions :I. D # TII. D % T III. D % M
(A) All are true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only either I or II is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true
58. Statements : H $ J, J © M, M @ T
Conclusions :I. H % M II. H $ T III. T % J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these
59. Statements : R @ N, N % E, E # K
Conclusions :I. R © K II. K % N
III. E % R
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true
60. Statements : M © K, K % T, T $ R
Conclusions :I. R © K
II. R © M
III. T © M
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these
61.Statements : D # W, W $ Z, Z % M
Conclusions :I. Z @ D
II. M © D
III. D $ M
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) All are true
(E) None of these
62. Statements : K % N, N $ B, B © D
Conclusions :I. D % N
II. K % D
III. B © K
(A) None is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I is true
(E) Only II and III are true
63. Statements : T # A, A $ B, B @ D
Conclusions :I. D # A
II. D # T
III. B @ T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true
Directions (Q. 64 to 70)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-Finance in an organisation. The candidate must—
(i) Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 50 per cent marks.
(ii) Be a post-graduate in Management with specialization in Finance.
(iii) Be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 1.2.2008.
(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least two years in the Accounts/Finance department of an organization.
(v) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection process.
In the case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria EXCEPT—(a) At (ii) above, but has worked as Deputy Manager—Finance in an organization for at least three years, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.(b) At (v) above, but has secured at least 70 per cent marks in post graduation, his/her case is to be referred to President-Finance.In each question below, detailed information of one candidate is provided.You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in case of each candidate.
All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2008, mark answer—(A) If the candidate is not to be selected.
(B) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
(C) If the case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(D) If the case is to be referred to President-Finance.
(E) If the candidate is to be selected.
64. Neeta Kothari was born on 10th September 1975. She has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing her MBA with Finance specialization. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.
65. Gopal Sharma has secured 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA in Finance with 75 per cent marks. He was born on 25th may 1978. He has secured 39 per cent marks in the selection process.
66. Sikha Dwivedi was born on 8th March 1975. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduation. She has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing her post graduation. She has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.
67. Samir Malhotra has secured 55 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past fouryears after completing his MBA. He was born on 24th February 1980. He has secured 60 per centmarks in the selection process.
68. Somnath Banerjee was born on July 8, 1972. He has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and MBA-Finance. He has also secured 70 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing his MBA.
69. Ashok Chandra has secured 70 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBA Finance. He has been working for the past three years in the Finance Dept. of an organization after completing his MBA. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th December 1979.
70. Avinash Chopra has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past fouryears after completing graduation with 65 per cent marks. He has also done a diploma in Finance Management. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 3rd April,
1978.
Answers : 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C)7. (A) 1st, 4th and 7th digits of the number 4 6 7 1 3 5 8 and 4, 1 and 8 respectively. The number formed with these digits is 841 which is the perfect square of two digit odd number 29. The digit at
10th place it is 2.8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)13. (E) All the rest are the parts of a tree.14. (C)15. (C) All the rest birds can see.16. (C)17. (E) 2nd, 5th, 6th and 10th letters of the word STREAMLINE are T, A, M and E respectively. The
meaningful words formed with these letters are : TEAM, TAME, MEAT and MATE.18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23.(D)24.(E)

25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (C) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
Hence, 5 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.

34. (D) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for
Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for
Hence, VI steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.

35. (A) Input # nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56.
Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56.
Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56.
Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56

36. (D) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake There is no V step.

37. (D)
38. (B) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53
Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53
Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53
Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53
Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal
The last step is VI.
Hence, the prelast step is V.

39. (A) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen
Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen
Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box.
Hence, 3 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.

40. (A) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join.
Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join.
Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join.
Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join.
Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join.
Hence, four steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.

41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 17th from the right end is N and 9th to the right from N is A.
52. (A) 53. (E) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (E) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D)
64. (B) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Neeta Kothari in graduate examination.
65. (D) Gopal Sharma fulfils all the conditions excepts (v) and accordingly to (b) he obtained marks in
M.B.A. more than 70%. So his case will be referred to President-Finance.
66. (A) Sikha Dwivedi neither fulfils the condition (ii) nor (a). Hence she is not to be selected.
67. (E) Samir Malhotra fulfils all the conditions. So he is to be selected.
68. (A) The age of Somnath Banerjee is more than 35 years. So he is not to be selected.
69. (A) Ashok Chandra neither fulfils the condition (v) nor (b). Hence, he is not to be selected.
70. (C) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Avinash Chopra, but according to condition (a), all
are fulfil except condition (ii). The case is to be referred to General Manager Finance.