Sunday, November 28, 2010

Baroda Uttar Pradesh (UP) Gramin Bank Recruitment


Baroda Uttar Pradesh  (UP)  Gramin Bank
(Sponsored by Bank of Baroda)
A-1, Civil Lines, Raebareli, UP

Baroda UP Gramin Bank invites applications from domicile of Uttar Pradesh for following posts :

  • Officer Scale -I (Assistant Manager) : 28 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.14500-25700, Age : 18-26 years
  • Office Assistants (Clerical CadrE) : 217 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.7200-19300, Age : 18-26 years

Application fee : Rs.450/- for the post of Officer and Rs.400/- for the post of Assistant (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD/ Ex.SM candidates for both the posts) paid by a Demand Drafts  be drawn as “Baroda Uttar Pradesh Gramin Bank Recruitment Project - 2010” payable at Raebareli.

How to Apply : Application in the prescribed format in an envelope super scribing the name of the post on the envelope to be send to the following address on or before 27/12/2010 :

  • Officer - Post Box No. 7729, Borivali (West), Mumbai - 400092 
  • Office Assistant -  Post Box No. 8589, Kandivali (East), Mumbai - 400101
Please view  http://www.barodagraminbank.com/joomla/images/recruit.pdf for details and application format.

Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank Recruitment


Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank (CGB) in the state of Chhattisgarh is a regional rural bank, sponsored by State Bank of India .With over 240 branches spread across 14 districts of CG, CGB has around 1030 employees.Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank is recruiting for Officers & Office Assistants
Posts – Vacancies - Payscale:
Officer – 45 posts – Rs.21358 /month
Office Assistant – 124 posts – Rs.10642 /month

Dates:Online applications from 16.11.2010 to 15.12.2010
Written test: Officer posts – 20.02.2011; Clerks - 27.02.2011

Eligibilityfor Officer post,
* Must be within 18 –28 yrs of age, as on 1.09.2010
* Should have a degree in any discipline, as on 1.09.2010
* Proficiency in chhattisgarhi, hindi & english languages is required
* Those with knowledge of computers would be preferred.
* Chhattisgarh residents only are eligible

for Officer Assistant post,
* Age of 18 – 28 yrs, as on 1.09.2010
* Must be a resident of Chhattisgarh & proficient in chhattisgarhi,hindi & english.
* Posses a bachelor`s degree from a recognized university, as on 1.09.2010
* Those with good knowledge of computers will be preferred.

Application: Candidates applying for officer posts have to pay Rs.500(Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) & Rs.300(Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) for Officer assistants, at any
Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank or SBI branch before 15.12.2010 using the challan.Online applications have to filled & submitted after fee payment, through www.cgbank.in

>Those interested in applying for Chhattisgarh Gramin Bank recruitment can download the full notification, challan etc., from the bank website

Saturday, November 27, 2010

UNION BANK OF INDIA CLERKS-1640 RECRUITMENT


Union Bank of India, one of the leading public sector banks in India has over 1100 branches & 25,000 employees across the nation.Headquartered in Mumbai, United Bank of India has begun recruitment of 1640 Clerks.
Position - Vacancies – Payscale : original post @ www.bankexamsindia.com
Clerk cum Cashier – 1640 posts(across states) – Rs.7200-19200

Dates : Online application registration – 26.11.2010 to 16.12.2010
Written test – 6.02.2011

Eligibility: Those interested to apply for Union bank of India clerk posts,
* Has to be 18 –28yrs of age , as on 1.11.2010
* Should have 60% in XII std. or equivalent OR Pass in any Degree, as on 1.11.2010
* Must read, write & speak the language of the state applied for
* Certificate in computer awareness from a computer training institute is required (not necessary for those who had computer subject in degree level)

Selection: As part of Union bank of India clerk recruitment project 2010, the selection process involves Written Test & Test on computer knowledge for which, 0.25 would be reduced as negative mark for each wrong answer in the objective test.Depending on the marks, merit list is prepared & candidates shall be called for interview in the ratio of 1:3 (approx. 5000 candidates)

How to apply: The application fees of Rs.300(Gen/OBC) [no fee for other categories] has to be paid by cash at any Union Bank of India branch, using the payment challan between 26.11.2010 to 16.12.2010 & obtain counterfoil. Applicants then have to apply online through www.unionbankofindia.com by entering the necessary details & take a print-out of the application.

> Candidates can download the Union Bank of India Clerk Recruitment advertisement, challan format & apply online from the bank website here

Friday, November 26, 2010

BARODA GUJARAT GRAMIN BANK OFFICERS AND CLERKS RECRUITMENT

Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank (BGGB) formed in the year 2005 is sponsored by Bank of Baroda & operates across various districts of Gujarat.The bank is a also owned by Govt.of India & Govt of Gujarat. Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank has announced recruitment of Officers & Clerks.
Position – Vacancy – Payscale :
Officers (Scale I) – 20 posts – Rs.14500 /–/ 25700
Clerk – 73 posts – Rs.7200/–/19300

Dates: Applications to be sent before – 10.12.2010
Written test – Officer: 20.2.2011; Clerks: 27.2.2011

Eligibility: Candidates interested to apply for Officer posts,
* Age between 18 – 26yrs, as on 1.09.2010
* Should posses Degree in any discipline, as on 1.09.2010
* Must be fluent in Gujarati language.
* Those with computer knowledge would be preferred.
* Candidates from other states also can apply

 Clerk position:  Should be within 18 to 26 yrs of age, as on 1.9.2010
* Degree OR 50% aggregate in 12th(HSC) OR 60% in matriculation OR Diploma in banking
* Good knowledge of Gujarati language is necessary.
* Preference would be given to those with computer skills (MS-Office,Internet etc.)
* Residents of Gujarat can only apply.

Selection: Applicants will have to score atleast 40% in each Objective paper, as part of the written test.This test also has negative marks for every wrong answer.Depending on the written test, candidates would be shortlisted & called for Interview in the ratio of 1:4


Application: Candidates have to pay Rs.250(Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) as fees by DD payable at Bharuch.Separate application & fees for each post has to be sent if applying for both posts.The application form filled as per the given format must be sent along with DD,certificates & necessary documents to the mentioned address on or before 10.12.2010

Refer: Download the notification of Baroda Gujarat Gramin Bank recruitment & application format directly from their website here (pdf file)

Tuesday, November 23, 2010

IDBI EXECUTIVES RECRUITMENT


IDBI invites applications from the eligible and suitable applicants for the Executives - 700 posts to be
filled on contract basis at its different Branches and Offices.

QUALIFICATION: Graduate from a recognized university with 55% marks in aggregate* for
applicants belonging to General , OBC and PWD (General and OBC) categories

AGE: 25 YEARS

Selection process:

i. The selection process for the post of Executive (on contract) will comprise of a Written Test
followed by personal interview of the applicants, who have qualified in the written test. The Written Test
would comprise of Objective Type Questions having three components (a) Test of Reasoning, (b)
Test of Working English Language and (c) Test of Quantitative Aptitude. Questions papers for the
written test, except the paper on 'Test of English Language', will be set in Hindi and in English.
ii. The applicants will be called for the written test based on the information provided in the online
application form by them, subject to scrutiny at a later date.
iii. The applicants, who are successful in the written test, would be called for a personal interview. The
number of applicants called for interview will also be at the discretion of the Bank. Applicants have the option
to answer the questions during interview in Hindi or English at their option. Applicants qualifying both in the
written test and personal interview shall be considered for final shortlisting.
iv. All applicants shortlisted in the interview would be referred for pre-recruitment medical examination on
same day or next day. Reference for medical examination does not imply final selection, which may please be
noted. The final selection or offer of employment would be made based on applicant’s marks in the interview
,written test, being found medically fit and subject to fulfillment of all other eligibility criteria with regard to
age and qualification as stipulated in the advertisement.

LAST DATE FOR APPLY: 16-12-2010

FOR MORE DETAILS CLICK HERE

Saturday, November 20, 2010

Oriental Bank of Commerce PO EXAM 2009



General Awareness

1. Which of the following crops cannot be called a Plantation Crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Oil Palm
(C) Rubber
(D) Coffee
(E) Coconut

2. Which of the following is the name of the spacecraft launched by India as a part of Mission to Moon ?
(A) Moon-1
(B) Chandrayaan-1
(C) Kalpana
(D) RADOM
(E) None of these

3. As per the reports published by the World Bank what percentage of Indian population lives below the new International Poverty Line ?
(A) 30%
(B) 62%
(C) 52%
(D) 42%
(E) 68%

4. Which of the following is not a ‘Social Sector Programme’ run by the Govt. of India ?
(A) National Rural Health Mission
(B) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
(D) Integrated Child Development Services
(E) Bharat Nirman

5. In order to augment Credit flow to small and poor borrowers, commercial banks are required to provide how much percentage of their priority sector advances to weaker sections of the society ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 30%
(D) 25%
(E) 35%

6. As reported in some newspapers/magazines a large number of children/infants are falling sick because of the use of melamine contaminated dairy products in the world. Due to this many countries like Africa, Japan, Singapore, etc. have stopped import of these products. Which of the following countries was the main exporter of such products ?
(A) China
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) Iran
(E) None of these

7. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the programme launched in India for the economic empowerment of persons with severe to profound disabilities ?
(A) ARUNIM
(B) NREGA
(C) GCMMF
(D) UNCTAD
(E) SCOPE

8. As per the recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission, what will be the share of the State Govts. in total shareable proceeds of Central taxes ?
(A) 15%
(B) 20·5%
(C) 22%
(D) 30·5%
(E) 35·5%

9. Which of the following is/are objective(s) of the ‘Rural Drinking water supply Programme’ launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Supply safe drinking water to all villages.
2. Assisting local communities to maintain sources of safe drinking water in good condition.
3. Giving special attention for water supply to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following is not a Source of Tax Revenue collected by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Income Tax
(D) Service Tax
(E) Dividends and Profits

11. Asif Ali Zardari who has taken over as the new President of Pakistan is from which of the following political Parties ?
(A) Pakistan Muslim League
(B) Awami League
(C) Pakistan People’s Party
(D) Pakistan National Congress
(E) None of these

12. India is now out of the nuclear sanction imposed on it about 16 years back. This sanction was imposed by which of the following organisations ?
(A) Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
(B) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
(C) INTERPOL
(D) UN Security Council
(E) None of these

13. Very often we read in newspapers about the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Through Automatic Route. What is meant by Automatic Route ?
1. It is a process which allows foreign investors to trade shares of any Indian Company on day-to-day basis openly in stock markets.
2. It is a process by which Indian Companies are allowed to issue shares to any foreign investor as a part of their paid up Capital in the project in which they have made an investment.
3. It is a process in which all foreign investors are asked to make all their investments in Indian projects in rupee currency only and that too in cash only. Technical knowhow or any other type of participation is not allowed as a part of investment.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

14. The Govt. of India is planning to introduce a ‘National Security Exception Act’ in the Parliament, which will work on the lines of Exxon-Florio provision prevalent in the USA. What is the purpose of the proposed Act ?
1. The Act is a part of Indo-US Nuclear Pact as this only will allow India to start building nuclear facilities in the country.
2. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to stall any foreign Company from acquiring any local asset (FDI) if it is found to be compromising with national security.
3. The Act will empower the Govt. of India to control terrorism in a better way as all e-services will be under thorough scrutiny by security agencies.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

15. Which of the following is not included in the list of UN Millennium Goals ?
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
(B) Develop a global partnership for development
(C) Promote Gender equality
(D) Reduce Child Mortality
(E) Make World Nuclear free

16. Which of the following agencies/bodies has asked all foreign funds to come forward and register itself as Foreign Institutional Investments (FIIs) prior to any investment in India ?
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) IBA
(D) Registrar of Companies
(E) None of these

17. Who amongst the following Indian players could not win any medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 ?
(A) Sushil Kumar
(B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Anjali Bhagwat
(D) Jitendra Kumar
(E) Saina Nehwal

18. India recently signed an agreement in the field of hydrocarbon with which of the following countries for which Hernan Martinez Torres, Minister of Energy of that country was in India ?
(A) Zambia
(B) Ukraine
(C) Colombia
(D) Turkey
(E) None of these

19. Which of the following countries has asked India to scrap Kosi River Pact, the river which created a havoc in Bihar recently ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Pakistan
(C) China
(D) Nepal
(E) Bhutan

20. Which of the following is the amount of the relief package announced by the Prime Minister of India for Flood-hit Bihar ?
(A) Rs. 1000 crore
(B) Rs. 1010 crore
(C) Rs. 1050 crore
(D) Rs. 1100 crore
(E) Rs. 1120 crore

21. As reported in the newspapers some people are of the opinion that India may not be able to achieve its export targets set for the year 2008-09. Which of the following is/are the reason(s) of their worry ?
1. There was a major flood in some parts of Bihar, Orissa, Gujarat and some other States recently, owing to which fruit/horticultural crop has not reached export markets in  sufficient quantity.
2. Rupee is frequently getting depreciated against US dollar.
3. Some major economies of the world are passing through the phase of economic recession. Hence many export orders are cancelled.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3 only
(E) None of these

22. While talking to the Press/Media/Group of experts in Singapore the former Governor of RBI, Dr. Y. V. Reddy, said that the impact of global financial turmoil will be less on Asia. What in opinion of the people like Dr. Reddy are the strengths of Asian Financial System which will help it to sustain the turmoil ? (Pick-up correct statement(s) as your answer.)
1. Banks in Asia are better capitalized and are not much exposed to sophisticated derivatives.
2. Asian economies were in a high growth mode and hence they have better ability to withstand the crisis.
3. Most of the Asian countries used to enjoy a strong fiscal position and current account surpluses in the past. This has given them an ability to bail out a failing financial institution in case it appeared.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

23. Subsequent to the RBI’s move of reducing the CRR, the industry Chambers in India are demanding for softened interest rates. How will this demand of softened interest rates help the industry ?
1. It will give a push-up to new investments and augment the demand of new proposals for more credits.
2. The move will help in creation of many new employment opportunities.
3. It will strengthen the position of the Stock Markets in India.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

24. The recent decision of the RBI to cut Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 150 basis points (October 2008) will be able to infuse how much liquidity into the market ?
(A) Rs. 10,000 crore
(B) Rs. 30,000 crore
(C) Rs. 40,000 crore
(D) Rs. 50,000 crore
(E) None of these

25. As per the reports published in the newspapers recently Indian Rupee was on depreciation and there was a time when the depreciation was about 17% in six months. Which of the following was/were the main cause(s) of this continuous fall ?
1. Foreign fund flow was very low.
2. There was heavy demand for the US dollar in the local forex market.
3. RBI all of a sudden decided to lower the CRR.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 only
(D) Only 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3

26. The issues related to the Land Acquisition for setting-up ‘Special Economic Zones (SEZs)’ is frequently seen in the newspapers these days. As per existing laws maximum how much area is allowed to be acquired for a SEZ ?
(A) 1000 hectares
(B) 2000 hectares
(C) 3000 hectares
(D) 5000 hectares
(E) None of these

27. Shibu Soren took over as the new Chief Minister of—
(A) Bihar
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Uttarakhand
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following was one of the major point of disagreement between various countries over which the talks at World Trade Organisation (WTO) got collapsed recently ?
(A) Subsidy to farmers
(B) Providing special status to India
(C) Drafting a new constitution for WTO
(D) Drafting a common Trade Policy for next 5 years
(E) None of these

29. Who amongst the following is the recipient of the Lifetime Achievement Award at the 54th National Film Award Ceremony ?
(A) Dilip Kumar
(B) Shashi Kapoor
(C) Rekha
(D) Hema Malini
(E) Mrinal Sen

30. The support price of which of the following commodities was raised by 33%-40% recently to make it Rs. 2,500 per quintal ?
(A) Cotton
(B) Sugarcane
(C) Wheat
(D) Palm Oil
(E) None of these

31. Who amongst the following cricketers made a World Record of 12 Sixes in a One Day International Match recently ?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Xavier Marshall
(C) Muttiah Muralitharan
(D) Mike Hussey
(E) None of these

32. Which of the following cities became the first 100% e-literate city of India ?
(A) Pune
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Kozhikode
(D) Jaipur
(E) Bangalore

33. As we all know India will continue to be a net importer of steel as the demand of the same is likely to increase by about 11% in days to come. What is the percentage growth in inland production of steel ?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 7%
(D) 8%
(E) 10%

34. International Literacy Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) September 18
(B) September 8
(C) October 18
(D) October 8
(E) None of these

35. Which of the following teams won the Durand Cup Football played in New Delhi in September 2008 ?
(A) Tata Motors
(B) Indian Railways
(C) Churchill Brothers
(D) Mahindra United
(E) None of these

36. Which of the following is/are part of New National Biofuel Policy 2008 launched by the Govt. of India ?
1. Minimum Support Price with a provision of periodic revision.
2. No duties or taxes would be levied on Biodiesel.
3. Biodiesel production to be taken up from non-edible oil seeds in waste/marginal lands.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

37. Who amongst the following was given the Mahatma Gandhi Award for Reconciliation and Peace 2008 ?
(A) Akio Ishii
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Nelson Mandela
(D) Prince Charles
(E) None of these

38. Which of the following is/are some of the recommendations of the Raghurajan Committee on financial sector reforms ?
1. Target inflation control rather than controlling money supply.
2. Open Corporate and Govt. Bond markets.
3. Provide liberal regulations for mergers and acquisitions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

39. Which of the following countries is passing through a crisis called as ‘Darfur Humanitarian Crisis’ ?
(A) `Uganda
(B) Somalia
(C) Sudan
(D) Sierra Leone
(E) None of these

40. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘Inside Third World’ ?
(A) Amit Choudhury
(B) William Goldings
(C) V. Harrison
(D) Nana Palkiwala
(E) None of these

41. The ‘18th Safety Olympics’ was organised in—
(A) Seoul
(B) Berlin
(C) London
(D) Moscow
(E) New York

42. Mahendra Kapoor who died recently was a famous—
(A) Politician
(B) Social Worker
(C) Journalist
(D) Sportsman
(E) Playback Singer

43. The Prime Minister of India recently released the Economic Outlook for 2008-09. According to the document Indian economy will grow at what rate during the period of the review ?
(A) 7·7%
(B) 8%
(C) 8·33%
(D) 9·7%
(E) None of these

44. The 48th National Open Athletics Championship was held at—
(A) Kochi
(B) Delhi
(C) Jaipur
(D) Lucknow
(E) Panaji

45. Which of the following countries refused to ratify the ‘Lisbon Treaty’, a very crucial agreement for reforms in the constitution of the European Union ?
(A) Russia
(B) Poland
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Italy

46. Which of the following is not an Employment Generating Programme of the Govt. of India ?
(A) NREGA
(B) SGRY
(C) SGSY
(D) TRYSEM
(E) CAMELS

47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Other Side of Midnight’ ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) Katherine Mayo
(C) Ernest Hamingway
(D) H. G. Wells
(E) Sydney Sheldon

48. China recently resolved its border dispute with which of the following countries ?
(As per agreement Yinlong island will be handed over to China.)
(A) Mongolia
(B) Japan
(C) India
(D) Taiwan
(E) Russia

49. Agha Khan Trophy is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Badminton
(D) Golf
(E) Hockey

50. Two new countries recently signed the protocols to become the member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO).
These countries are—
(A) Ukraine–Croatia
(B) Croatia–Albania
(C) Georgia–Russia
(D) Georgia–Croatia
(E) None of these

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (E) 11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (E) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (C) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (E) 41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (A) 44. (A) 45. (E) 46. (E) 47. (E) 48. (E) 49. (E) 50. (E)

Oriental Bank of Commerce 2009 exam



ENGLISH LANGUAGE :

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Emperor’s brother-in-law was also his Prime Minister and his avourite courtier. He was not liked by the other courtiers as a result. Jealous of the Emperor’s brother-inlaw the courtiers once said, “Your Majesty, why don’t you appoint one of us as Prime Minister ? Subject us to a test to see who is truly the right person to be Prime Minister.” At the time the Prime Minister was out hunting with another courtier. In pursuit of their prey they mistakenly rode into the neighbouring kingdom. As they were strangers and had weapons they were arrested as spies by the soldiers there and were certain to be sentenced to death by the ruler, King Amir.

The courtier was petrified and bowed his head in prayer. The Prime Minister pretending to be praying whispered something in his ear. The two of them then began arguing. “I should be the one to die first !” each of them said. Those present were astonished to hear their argument. The soldiers brought the two before King Amir. He was astonished to hear of their strange behaviour. “Tell me why you are so eager to die ?” Pretending to be reluctant to reveal the reason the Prime Minister bowed respectfully and said, “Sir, our Emperor has a secret wish of annexing your kingdom. If you kill us the Emperor can attack your kingdom on the pretext of avenging our deaths. The Emperor has also promised us a great reward for our sacrifice. We felt that in case you changed your mind and set one of us free to return home he would not get the reward.” King Amir was worried when he heard this. Concerned that the lives of his subjects would be lost in war, King Amir refused to kill either of the two and sent them home. When they heard about the incident the Emperor’s courtiers bowed their heads. They were ashamed. They realised the Emperor had made a wise choice in selecting his Prime Minister.

1. Why were the courtiers not on good terms with the Emperor’s brother-in-law ?
(A) The Emperor used to only heed his brother-in-law’s advice
(B) He was cleverer than they were and he would remind them of it
(C) He was empowered to take decisions on behalf of the Emperor
(D) He had more power and prestige and earned more than they did
(E) None of these

2. Why did the Emperor’s two courtiers enter the neighbouring kingdom ?
(A) The Emperor had asked them to deliver a message to its king
(B) They wanted to spy on the neighbouring kingdom
(C) They had accidentally wandered into neighbouring territory
(D) The other courtiers had set a trap for them
(E) Their curiosity about the kingdom led them to enter it

3. Why was the Emperor’s brotherin-law not afraid when faced with death ?
1. He felt that if he told King Amir the truth his life would be spared.
2. He was confident that he would be rescued.
3. He had prayed fervently asking God to save them.
(A) None
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 2
(D) Both 2 and 3
(E) Only 3

4. Which of the following can be said about the Emperor ?
(A) He reserved important posts for his family members
(B) He had chosen a worthy Prime Minister
(C) He was ruthless and wanted to conquer the neighbouring kingdom
(D) He treated all his courtiers shabbily except his brother-inlaw
(E) He deliberately endangered the lives of his courtiers in order to test them

5. Why did the two courtiers begin to argue with each other ?
(A) They wanted to distract the soldiers so they could escape
(B) It was a delaying tactics till they were rescued
(C) They blamed each other for the predicament they were in
(D) The Prime Minister wanted to stop the other courtier from divulging the Emperor’s plan to the enemy
(E) None of these

6. What surprised King Amir about the courtiers’ behaviour ?
1. They were very respectful to him although he had condemned them to death.
2. Each was volunteering to be killed first.
3. They had managed to convince the soldiers to set them free.
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these

7. Why did King Amir set the two courtiers free ?
(A) He believed their story that the Emperor was planning to attack
(B) He had great respect for their courage
(C) He had ascertained they were not spies so he set them free
(D) He was impressed by the wisdom of the Emperor’s courtiers
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following does not describe the Emperor’s reaction to the courtiers’ request to appoint one of them as Prime Minister ?
1. He thought about asking his brother-in-law to resign.
2. He tested his brother-in-law to prove he was best suited for the post of Prime Minister.
3. He disregarded it completely and punished the courtiers.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these

9. Which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(A) King Amir was concerned about the welfare of his people
(B) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw had enemies at court
(C) King Amir set the Emperor’s brother-in-law free on account of his bravery
(D) The Emperor’s brother-inlaw was deserving of the post of Prime Minister
(E) The Prime Minister was a quick thinker

10. What was the courtiers’ reaction when they heard about the Prime Minister’s safe return ?
(A) They were disappointed because their plan had failed
(B) They were ashamed of their plot to kill him
(C) They were upset to hear about his bad experience
(D) They bowed in respect and praised his wisdom
(E) None of these

Directions–(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. subject
(A) topic
(B) undergo
(C) expose
(D) citizen
(E) accountable

12. pretext
(A) excuse
(B) guess
(C) crime
(D) example
(E) fraud

13. petrified
(A) panic
(B) scared
(C) feared
(D) alarming
(E) terror

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. right
(A) immoral
(B) unsuitable
(C) inaccurate
(D) inconvenient
(E) error

15. reveal
(A) secret
(B) darken
(C) disclose
(D) hide
(E) invisible

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. In these circumstances, they will not be able to meet the assign target to them.
(A) targeted assignment
(B) assigned target
(C) assigning of target
(D) target assigned
(E) No correction required

17. Banks must be ensured that 18 per cent of their loans is given to the agricultural sector.
(A) are ensured
(B) have to ensure
(C) being ensured
(D) should be ensured
(E) No correction required

18. The government has announced several initiatives benefiting to factory workers.
(A) beneficial
(B) for benefiting to
(C) which will benefit
(D) benefited to
(E) No correction required

19. A date for the committee meeting to discuss the details of the proposal has yet to be decided.
(A) will be yet decided
(B) is been decided yet
(C) have not been still decided
(D) is not yet been decided
(E) No correction required

20. With the raining heavily the multi-storey office building was badly damaged and collapsed.
(A) Owing to the heavy rains
(B) Because of raining heavily
(C) Since heavily it rained
(D) In raining heavily
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Since petroleum products are taxed (A) heavily they are a majar (B) source (C) of revenue (D) for the government. All correct (E)

22. Even though the proposal appearrs (A) practical (B) the committee should discuss (C) it at length. (D) All correct (E)

23. The Indian stock market has been one of the well (A) performing (B) markets globally (C) during the current (D) year. All correct (E)

24. Had the scheme been allowed (A) to continue (B) it would have generated (C) attracted (D) returns. All correct (E)

25. People should constantly (A) upgrade their skills (B) in order to be effective (C) and efficient. (D) All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. With all this experimentation he incurred an expenditure of over a million dollars before success smiled on him.
2. Edison invented the long lasting electric light bulb.
3. To find a fibre to burn inside a bulb he experimented with over two thousand items.
4. We thus owe the miracle of light as much to his perseverance as to his genius.
5. However he did not invent it overnight.
6. His friends too travelled all over the world from South America to India in search of a suitable fibre.

Answers
1. (E) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (E) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (E) 9. (C) 10. (D) 11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (E) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (E) 24. (D) 25. (E)

RBI Grade ‘B’ Posts Syllabus, Mode of Selection for Officer

Selection will be through Written Examinations (WE) and Interview. 'WE' will be held in two phases as under:
(I) Phase I (Objective Type Test) : This Paper of 3 hours duration for 200 marks will be held on Sunday, the February 6, 2011. The Paper consists tests of i) General Awareness ii) English Language iii) Quantitative Aptitude and iv) Reasoning. Candidates have to secure minimum marks separately for each test as prescribed by the Board. Candidates who secure minimum marks separately for each Test as prescribed will be shortlisted for Phase II of the 'WE' based on the aggregate marks obtained in the Objective Test. The minimum aggregate cut off marks for being shortlisted for Phase II of the WE will be decided by the Board in relation to the number of vacancies. Roll No. of the candidates successful in Phase I of the WE are likely to be published around March/April 2011 in Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar and on the RBI website and a brief notice thereof in leading newspapers.
(II) Phase II (Descriptive Type Test): The Phase II Examination will be conducted in May/ June 2011(tentative) only for those candidates who are successful in Phase I (Objective Type Test). The date and time-table will be intimated to the candidates concerned at the appropriate time. The Examination will consist of three Descriptive Type papers –
(i) Paper I – English (ii) Paper II – Economic and Social Issues and (iii) Paper III – Finance and Management. Each of these papers is of 3 hours duration carrying 100 marks.
NOTE : Phase I (except the test of English) and Papers II and III of Phase II will be set bilingually in Hindi and English. Phase I is Objective Type and only marking the correct choice is required. However, Papers II and III of Phase II can be answered either wholly in Hindi or English at the candidate's option.
(III) Syllabus (Phase II) :
(i) Paper I – English : Essay, PrĂ©cis writing, Comprehension, Business/Office Correspondence.
(ii) Paper II – Economic and Social Issues: Growth and Development – Measurement of growth : National Income and per capita income – Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India – Sustainable Development and Environmental issues. Economic Reforms in India – Industrial and Labour Policy – Monetary and Fiscal Policy – Privatisation – Role of Economic Planning. Globalization – Opening up of the Indian Economy – Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy – International Economic Institutions – IMF and World Bank – WTO – Regional Economic Co-operation. Social Structure in India – Multiculturalism – Demographic Trends – Urbanisation and Migration – Gender Issues – Social Justice : Positive Discrimination in favour of the under privileged – Social Movements – Indian Political System – Human Development – Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.
(iii) Paper III – Finance and Management :
Finance : The Union Budget – Direct and Indirect taxes; Non-tax sources of revenue; Outlays; New Measures; Financial Sector Reforms; Capital Market, Money Market and Foreign Exchange Market; Stock Exchanges and their Regulation; Capital Market Intermediaries and their Regulation; Role of SEBI; Functions of the Money Market; Growth and Operation of the Money Market; The Foreign Exchange Market; From FERA to FEMA; Exchange Rate Management; Exchange Risk Management; Role of Banks and Financial Institutions in Economic Development; Regulation of Banks and Financial Institutions;
Disinvestment in Public Sector Units.
Management : Management: its nature and scope; The Management Processes; Planning Organisation, Staffing, Directing and Controlling; The Role of a Manager in an Organisation. Leadership: The Tasks of a Leader; Leadership Styles; Leadership Theories; A successful Leader versus an effective Leader. Human Resource Development: Concept of HRD; Goals of HRD; Performance Appraisal – Potential appraisal and development – Feedback and Performance Counseling – Career Planning – Training and Development – Rewards – Employee Welfare. Motivation, Morale and Incentives: Theories of Motivation; How Managers Motivate; Concept of Morale; Factors determining morale; Role of Incentives in Building up Morale. Communication: Steps in the Communication Process; Communication Channels; Oral versus Written Communication; Verbal versus non-verbal Communication; upward, downward and lateral communication; Barriers to Communication, Role of Information Technology. Corporate Governance: Factors affecting Corporate Governance; Mechanisms of Corporate Governance.
NOTE : The above syllabus is only indicative and not exhaustive. Keeping in view that candidates from different faculty backgrounds apply for the post, the questions in Papers II and III will be basic in nature. Candidates will be short-listed for interview based on the aggregate marks obtained only in Phase II – Papers I, II and III. The minimum cut off marks for being short-listed for interview will be decided by the Board in relation to the number of vacancies. Candidates may answer the Interview either in Hindi or English at their option. Final selection will be based on the performance of the candidate in Phase II of the 'WE' and Interview.
(d) Number of attempts : Candidates belonging to Unreserved Category, who had already appeared four times for 'WE' for this post in the past, are not eligible to apply. No such restriction to candidates belonging to SC\ST\OBC\PWD, if the posts are reserved for them.
(e) Pre-examination training for SC/ST/PWD candidates: The Bank arranges pre-examination training for Phases I and II of the examination for SC/ST/PWD candidates, free of cost, at the centres where the Bank has its offices. Candidates who desire to avail of the training may apply separately to the Regional Director/General Manager, Reserve Bank of India at any one of the centres marked (**) below, whichever is convenient to them in the format furnished below on or before November 15, 2010. Candidates should not send their application for training to the Reserve Bank of India Services Board's Office (Board) as the Board will not entertain such applications.

Friday, November 19, 2010


Indian Bank
Head Office, 66 Rajaji Salai, Chennai – 600001 (Tamil Nadu)

Recruitment of Sportspersons



Indian Bank invites applications from talented Sportspersons for Men’s team in  Basketball, Cricket, Football, Hockey, Volleyball and for Men’s & Women’s team in Athletics and Carrom for appointment in Officer and Clerical Cadre :
  • Sportsman   : 20 posts (Officers - 5, Clerk-15) in JMG Scale-I, Age : 21-30 years  for Officers and 18-28 years for Clerks as on 01/07/2010, Pay Scale : Rs.14500-25700/  7200-19300

Application Fee :  Rs.400/- for Officers and Rs.300/- for Clerks (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD candidates) to be paid in the form of DD in favour of Indian Bank payable at Chennai.

How to Apply :  Application in the prescribed format with all particulars regarding educational qualificationd following address so as to reach on or before 26/12/2010  :
and Sports Achievements supported by relevant Certi ficates and be sent in a  cover superscribe
 “Recruitment of Sporspersons" to the

 Assistant General Manager, Indian Bank, Head Office, HRM Department, 66, Rajaji Salai, Chennai  600001

Wednesday, November 17, 2010

SBI INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY SPECIALIST OFFICERS RECRUITMENT 2010

 
RECRUITMENT OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY SPECIALIST OFFICERS (ITSO)  IN STATE BANK OF INDIA
 
PAYMENT OF FEES : FROM 15.11.2010 TO 15.12.2010
LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATION : 15.12.2010
LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATION FROM FAR FLUNG AREAS : 22.12.2010

   Click Here for More Details

SPECIALIST OFFICERS JOBS IN CORPORATION BANK


Corporation Bank
(A govt. of India enterprise)
Corporate Office: P.B. No. 88, Mangaladevi Temple Road, Pandeshwar, Mangalore - 575001


Corporation Bank, a leading Public Sector Bank, invites Online applications from Indian Citizens for following 398 posts of Specialist Officers Cadre:

  1. Marketing Officer : 100 posts on conract basis, Age : 20-30 years
  2. Probationary Officers (JMG-I): 82 post, Pay Scale : Rs.14500-25700/-, Age : 20-30 years
  3. Argriculture Field Manager (MMGS-II): 40 post, Pay Scale : Rs.19400-28100/-, Age : 24-30 years
  4. Human Resource Development Officer (JMGS-I): 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.14500-25700/-, Age : 20-30 years
  5. Human Resource Development Officer (MMGS-II): 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.19400-28100/-, Age : 24-35 years
  6. Credit Managers (MMGS-II): 50 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.19400-28100/-, Age : 25-35 years 
  7. Credit Managers (MMGS-III): 55 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 25-35 years 
  8. Forex Officers (MMGS-II): 22 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.19400-28100/-, Age : 25-35 years 
  9. Credit Managers (MMGS-III): 08 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 25-35 years 
  10. Manager - Faculty (MMGS-II): 10 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.19400-28100/-, Age : 24-35 years 
  11. Sr. Manager - Faculty (MMGS-III): 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 25-40 years 
  12. Sr. Manager - Public Relations (MMGS-III): 04 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 25-35 years 
  13. Chief Manager - Public Relations (SMGS-IV): 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.30600-36200/-, Age : 30-40 years 
  14. Information Security Auditors (MMGS-III): 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 25-40 years 
  15. Architect (JMGS-I): 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 24-35 years 
  16. Security Officers (MMGS-II): 05 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.19400-28100/-, Age : 25-45 years 
  17. Risk Manager (Sr. Manager) (MMGS-III): 03 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.25700-31500/-, Age : 25-35 years 
  18. Risk Manager (Assistant General Manager) (SMGS-V): 01 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.36200-40400/-, Age : 30-40 years 

Application Fee : Rs.300/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PH candidates) to be paid by a challan form in any branch of the Corporation bank in A/c No. 0377/CA/01/174.

How to Apply : Apply Online only at Corporation bank website from 16/11/2010 to 30/11/2010.

Important Dates :
  1. Last date for online registration : 30/11/2010
  2. Lickely date of written test : 16/01/2011
Kindly visit http://www.corpbank.com/asp/0100text.asp?presentID=1861&headID=805 for Detailed information and link to online submission of Application.

Tuesday, November 16, 2010

INDIAN BANK RURAL MARKETING OFFICERS EXAM 2010 SOLVED PAPER


Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Delays of several months in National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) wage payments and worksites where labourers have lost all hope of being paid at all have become the norm in many States. How are workers who exist on the margins of subsistence supposed to feed their families ? Under the scheme, workers must be paid within 15 days, failing which they are entitled to compensation under the Payment of Wages Act-upto Rs. 3,000/- per aggrieved worker. In reality, compensation is received in only a few isolated instances.

It is often argued by officials that the main reason for the delay is the inability of banks and post offices to handle mass payments of NREGS wages. Though there is a grain of truth in this, as a diagnosis it is misleading. The ‘jam’ in the banking system has been the result of the hasty switch to bank payments imposed by the Central Government against the recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council which advocated a gradual transition starting with villages relatively close to the nearest bank.

However delays are not confined solely to the banking system. Operational hurdles include implementing agencies taking more than fifteen days to issue payment orders, viewing of work measurement as a cumbersome process resulting in procrastination by the engineering staff and non-maintenance of muster rolls and job cards etc. But behind these delays lies a deeper and deliberate ‘backlash’ against the NREGS. With bank payments making it much harder to embezzle NREGS funds, the programme is seen as a headache by many government functionaries–the workload has remained without the ‘inducements’. Slowing down wage payments is a convenient way of sabotaging the scheme because workers will desert NREGS worksites.


The common sense solution advocated by the government is to adopt the business correspondent model wherein bank agents will go to villages to make cash payments and duly record them on handheld electronic devices. This solution is based on the wrong diagnosis that distance separating villages from banks is the main issue. In order to accelerate payments, clear timelines for every step of the payment process should be incorporated into the system as Programme Officers often have no data on delays and cannot exert due pressure to remedy the situation. Workers are both clueless and powerless with no provision for them to air their grievances and seek redress. In drought affected areas the system of piece rate work can be dispensed with, where work measurement is not completed within a week and wages may be paid on the basis of attendance. Buffer funds can be provided to gram panchayats and post offices to avoid bottlenecks in the flow of funds. Partial advances could also be considered provided wage payments are meticulously tracked. But failure to recognise problems and unwillingness to remedy them will remain major threats to the NREGS.

1. What impact have late wage payments had on NREGS workers ?
(A) They cannot obtain employment till their dues are cleared
(B) They have benefited from the compensation awarded to them
(C) They have been unable to provide for their families
(D) They have been ostracised by their families who depend on them for sustenance
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following factors has not been responsible for untimely payment of NREGS wages ?
(A) Communication delays between agencies implementing the scheme
(B) Improper record keeping
(C) Behind schedule release of payments by banks
(D) Drought conditions prevalent in the country
(E) Delays in work measurement
Ans : (D)

3. What has the outcome of disbursing NREGS wages through banks been ?
(A) Theft of funds by administration officials responsible for the scheme has reduced
(B) Increased workload for local government officials
(C) Protests by workers who have to travel long distances to the nearest bank to claim their wages
(D) Time consuming formalities have to be completed by workers
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. According to the passage, which of the following has/have been the consequence(s) of delayed wage payments ?
(1) Compensation to victimised workers has amounted to crores.
(2) Banks will no longer be entrusted with remitting wages.
(3) Regulations to ensure punctual wage payments have come into force.
(A) None
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) Only (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)

5. To which of the following has the author attributed the delay in wage payments ?
(A) Embezzlement of funds by corrupt bank staff.
(B) Lack of monitoring by the Central Employment Guarantee Council
(C) An attempt to derail the NREGS by vested interests
(D) Overworked bank staff deliberately delay payments to protest against extra work
(E) Engineers’ efforts to wreck the NREGS because of low wages
Ans : (E)

6. which of the following is NOT true in the context of the passage ?
(1) Workers are reluctant to open bank accounts as branches are not conveniently located.
(2) Local officials often delay wage payments in drought prone areas to benefit workers.
(3) The Government has not implemented every recommendation of the Central Employment Guarantee Council.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following can be considered a deficiency in the NREGS ?
(A) Lack of co-ordination among Programme Officers
(B) Local officials are unaware of correct operational procedures
(C) Workers have no means of obtaining redressal for untimely wage payments
(D) Disbursing wages through banks instead of readily accessible post offices
(E) The Central Employment Guarantee Council is reluctant to award compensation to workers
Ans : (A)

8. What solution has the author suggested to expedite NREGS wage payments ?
(A) Empower the Central Employment Guarantee Council to monitor the NREGS
(B) Implement payment of wages in cash at all worksites
(C) Restrict the amount of funds to local government bodies in order to curb frauds
(D) Provide attendance records to workers so that they have proof to claim their wages
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. What is the author’s view about the government’s solution to the problem of delayed wage payments ?
(A) He agrees with it as workers will not have to bear the expense of travelling long distances to claim their wages
(B) He is not in favour of it as funds can be misappropriated by agents
(C) He welcomes it as the time consuming work measurement process will be done away with
(D) He feels it does not address the core issues plaguing the scheme
(E) He feels it will ensure flawless implementation of the scheme
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following can be said about the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme ?
(1) Skilled engineers are not compensated under this scheme.
(2) The scheme should be implemented only in famine prone areas.
(3) Employers have not complied with all the requirements of the scheme.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (2) and(3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. Isolated
(A) Lonely
(B) Separated
(C) Detached
(D) Hidden
(E) Rare
Ans : (E)

12. Confined
(A) Locked
(B) Restricted
(C) Detained
(D) Captured
(E) Imprisoned
Ans : (B)

13. Desert
(A) Betray
(B) Escape
(C) Barren
(D) Abandon
(E) Vacant
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Convenient
(A) Troublesome
(B) Annoying
(C) Appropriate
(D) Easy
(E) Distant
Ans : (A)

15. Deliberate
(A) Unsteady
(B) Abrupt
(C) Mistake
(D) Chosen
(E) Accidental
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Unless the government monitored the loan waiver scheme well, it is likely to be a success.
(A) For the government to monitor
(B) Unless the government monitors
(C) Though the government monitored
(D) If the government monitors
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

17. The main objective of hiring this consultant is in assessing that this data can be computerised.
(A) assessing that
(B) an assessment of
(C) to assess how
(D) for assessing that when
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

18. The designs finally ready and we shall submit them for approval tomorrow, well before the specified deadline.
(A) Designs finally will be
(B) Designs are finally
(C) Final designs
(D) Designing finally
(E) No correction required.
Ans : (B)

19. Most irrigation projects have delayed due to lack of adequate government funding.
(A) have been delayed from
(B) will be delayed for
(C) were delaying due to
(D) are delayed because of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

20. Many Indian companies import components from China as they are cheap compared to those manufactured locally.
(A) as they are cheap as
(B) because it is cheaper
(C) since these are cheaper
(D) which is cheap
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. Your marketing strategy (A) should be devised (B) dependent (C) on the kind of business you own. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

22. The file contents (A) a revised (B) estimate (C) of the banking industry’s manpower requirements (D) for the next year. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. To better understand the challenges (A) of starting a new venture (B) he read (C) up extensively. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

24. Since our financial resources (A) are limitless (B) we cannot afford (C) this alternative. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

25. His main reasoning (A) for applying (B) for this promotion is the possibility (C) of an overseas posting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
1. Voluntary measures such as codes of conduct have failed to address these issues and deliver change.
2. However they can also cause serious problems with their irresponsible behaviour.
3. Companies are a powerful force for good.
4. There are several instances of companies undermining worker’s rights and damaging the environment.
5. The Comapnies Bill 2009 is thus a means to address issues of corporate governance and ensure companies are accountable for the financial performance and social impact.
6. They provide jobs, boost economies and aid social and environmental development.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–`40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Despite the merger (A) / the airline has reported (B) / sizeable losses and is unable (C) / to pay their employees. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. We have recently began (A) / the process of recruiting (B) / insurance agents for (C) / our North-Eastern branches. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. The company’s decision to issue (A) / bonus shares clearly indicates (B) / the management’s confident (C) / about the future. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

34. Inspite that organisations are aware (A) / of the importance of IT (B) / they often do not know (C) / how to deploy it effectively. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. Keeping in mind that India (A) / is one of the world’s fastest (B) / growing economies many international (C) / companies are invested in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

36. Although interlinking of rivers will (A) / help tackle drought, the government (B) / has not paid much (C) / attention to this project. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

37. The rise in prices of food items is (A) / likely the cause of inflation (B) / to exceed eight percent (C) / during the next quarter. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. Many people believe that (A) / the nationalisation of banks (B) / in the 1960s have proteced India (C) / from the current financial crisis. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. RBI in favour (A) / of amending currently (B) / policies governing operations of (C) / foreign banks in India. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

40. These recently upgraded branch offices (A) / have been fully computerised (B) / and are connected to headquarters (C) / to ensure proper monitoring. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The …(41)… of India as an econonmic superpower is not reflected in the …(42)… of life enjoyed by its 1.2 billion citizens according to the Human Development Index which …(43)… India very low among 182 countries. In our performance oriented world, measurement issues have taken on …(44)… importance as what we measure affects what we do. In fact the French President has established an international commission on the Measurement of Economic Performance and Social Progress owing to his …(45)… and that of others with the current state of statistical information about the economy and society.

The big question concerns …(46)… Gross Domestic Product (GDP) provides a good measure of living standards. In many cases GDP statistics seem to …(47)… that the economy is doing far better than most citizens feel it is. Moreover the focus on GDP creates conflicts-while political leaders are told to maximise it, citizens also demand that …(48)… be paid to enhancing security, reducing air, water and noise pollution all of which actually …(49)… GDP growth. Statistics are …(50)… to summarise what is going on in our complex society, it is therefore obvious that we can’t reduce everything to a single number–GDP.

41. (A) tribute
(B) pursuit
(C) perception
(D) conversion
(E) title
Ans : (E)

42. (A) loss
(B) quality
(C) spirit
(D) span
(E) joy
Ans : (B)

43. (A) counted
(B) scored
(C) qualified
(D) regard
(E) ranked
Ans : (E)

44. (A) negligible
(B) great
(C) unduly
(D) trivial
(E) considerably
Ans : (B)

45. (A) obedience
(B) confidence
(C) belief
(D) dissatisfaction
(E) compliance
Ans : (D)

46. (A) that
(B) unless
(C) because
(D) against
(E) whether
Ans : (E)

47. (A) suggest
(B) recommend
(C) think
(D) point
(E) refer
Ans : (A)

48. (A) compensation
(B) respect
(C) debt
(D) attention
(E) expense
Ans : (D)

49. (A) recover
(B) lower
(C) attain
(D) decline
(E) shrunk
Ans : (B)

50. (A) inferred
(B) difficult
(C) interpret
(D) reveal
(E) intended
Ans : (E)

BARODA RAJASTHAN GRAMIN BANK RECRUITMENT 2010


                                                  Baroda Rajasthan  Gramin Bank (BRGB)
                                                                 (Sponsored by Bank of Baroda)
                                                                            Ajmer, Rajasthan

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank invites applications from Indian Citizens for Officer grade and from domicile of Rajasthan for following posts :

  • Officer MM Scale-II (Specialist Cadre) Gr. A : 05 posts (UR-4, OBC-1), Pay Scale : Rs. 19400-28100, Age : 21-32 years
  • Officer JM Scale-I Gr. A : 46 posts (UR-23, SC-7, ST-3, OBC-13), Pay Scale : Rs. 14500-25700, Age : 18-28 years
  • Office Assistants Gr. B : 66 posts (UR-33, SC-12, ST-8, OBC-13), Pay Scale : Rs. 7200-19300, Age : 18-28 years

Application fee : Rs. 400/- paid (Rs.50/- for  SC/ST/PH) by a Challan form available at BRGB website to be deposite in any branch of Bank of Baroda and keep the candidate copy in safe custody for future usage. (To be produced at the time of writtten test)
How to Apply : Application is to be submitted online only at the BRGB website from 16/11/2010 to 15/12/2010.

Important Dates:
  1. Commencement of online registration : 16/11/2010
  2. Last date of submission of application : 15/12/2010
  3. Date of written test for Officers : 20/02/2011
  4. Date of written test for Office Assistant : 27/02/2011

Please visit http://brgb.co.in/ details, challan form and online submission of application from 16/11/2010 onwards.


Sunday, November 14, 2010

UCO BANK CLERKS EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions.
For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports.
This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs.
However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.
1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector?
(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these
2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these
3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening
4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market
(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these
5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these
6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these
7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional
9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk
10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.
11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these
Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge
13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically
15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.
(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.
(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.
16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)
22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)
23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)
24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)
25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)
26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5)
27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5)
28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5)
29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)
30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5)
Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
31. When do you intend to return back home?
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required
32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required
33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required
34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required
35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required
36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required
37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required
38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required
39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required
40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required
Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.
41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through
42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing
43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want
44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance
45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited
47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively
48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past
49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular
50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

ANSWERS:-

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)