Friday, October 29, 2010

UCO BANK PO's RECRUITMENT 2010


                                                                     
                                             UCO BANK


Recruitment of 1050 Probationary Officer in JMGS I in Generalist Cadre
UCO Bank a leading listed Public Sector Bank invites ON LINE applications from Indian
citizens, who are young, qualified and active minds, really interested for a challenging
work and progressive career, for the post of Probationary Officer in Junior Management
Grade Scale I in Generalist Cadre only through Bank’s website www.ucobank.com . No
other means / mode of application will be accepted.


For applying on line, the candidates should have a valid e-mail ID which should be kept
alive during the currency of this recruitment exercise. If a candidate does not have a valid
e-mail ID, he/she should create new valid e-mail ID before applying on-line. The
candidate should go to any branch of UCO Bank, pay the amount of application
fee/postage and get cash receipt with transaction ID, depositing branch name with code
number and date of deposit written thereon. These numbers should be correctly entered
while registering application on-line.


Particulars Important Dates
Payment of Application Fee/Postage Charges From 09.11.2010 – To 30.11.2010
Opening Date for Online Registration 09.11.2010
Closing Date for Online Registration 30.11.2010
Tentative Date of Written examination 30.01.2011


Before applying candidates are advised to ensure that they fulfill the stipulated eligibility
criteria for the post. They should note that Application Fee and/or Postage Amount once
deposited will neither be refunded nor be adjusted against any other project. Candidates
are advised to fill their particulars online themselves correctly. Candidates should ensure
that particulars once submitted by them will be final as no further change will be allowed
thereafter.


Name of the Post : Probationary Officer in JMGS I
Total Number of Vacancies : 1050

UCO BANK PO's RECRUITMENT DETAILS CLICK HERE

RESERVE BANK OF INDIA OFFICERS GRADE 'B' EXAM 2010 PAPER

 General Awareness

Q.1. Article seventeen of the constitution of India provides for
(a) equivalence prior to law.
(b) equivalence of event in counts of open employment.
(c) extermination of titles.
(d) extermination of untouchability.
Q.2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for
(a) proxy supplies for Jammu & Kashmir.
(b) special supplies in apply oneself of Nagaland.
(c) special supplies in apply oneself of Manipur.
(d) supplies in apply oneself of monetary emergency.
Q.3. How many permanent members have been there in Security Council?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Six
(d) Four
Q.4. The United Kingdom is the classical e.g. of a/an
(a) aristocracy
(b) comprehensive monarchy
(c) inherent monarchy
(d) polity.
Q.5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by
(a) Hobbes, Locke as well as Rousseau.
(b) Plato, Aristotle as well as Hegel.
(c) Mill, Bentham as well as Plato.
(d) Locke, Mill as well as Hegel.
Q.6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is inaugurated by the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister.
(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.
Q.7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?
(a) Plutarch
(b) Herodotus
(c) Justin
(d) Pliny
Q.8. The Vedas have been well well known as
(a) Smriti.
(b) Sruti.
(c) Jnana.
(d) Siksha.
Q.9. The members of Estimate Committee are
(a) inaugurated from the Lok Sabha only.
(b) inaugurated from the Rajya Sabha only.
(c) inaugurated from both the Lok Sabha as well as the Rajya Sabha.
(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Q.10. Who is the arch confidant to the Governor?
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) Chief Minister.
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
(d) President.
Q.11. Foreign banking that has the bent of discerning emigration is called
(a) Scarce currency.
(b) Soft currency.
(c) Gold currency.
(d) Hot currency.
Q.12. Which of the following is the improved dimensions of Economic Development?
(a) GDP
(b) Disposable income
(c) NNP
(d) Per capita income
Q.13. In India, sheltered stagnation is in all celebrated in
(a) the civilised world sector.
(b) the bureau sector.
(c) the make make use of of sector.
(d) All these sectors.
Q.14. If the line made in Surat have been solitary in Mumbai or Delhi afterwards it is
(a) Territorial trade.
(b) Internal trade.
(c) International trade.
(d) Free trade.
Q.15. The important aphorism “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the
(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)
(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)
(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)
(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
Q.16. Bank Rate refers to the seductiveness rate during which
(a) Commercial banks embrace deposits from the public.
(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.
(c) Government loans have been floated.
(d) Commercial banks accede to loans to their customers.
Q.17. All the products that have been shock as well as singular in supply have been called
(a) Luxury goods.
(b) Expensive goods.
(c) Capital goods.
(d) Economic goods.
Q.18. The speculation of monopolistic foe is grown by
(a) E.H.Chamberlin
(b) P.A.Samuelson
(c) J.Robinson
(d) A.Marshall
Q.19. Smoke is shaped due to
(a) plain diluted in gas.
(b) plain diluted in liquid.
(c) gas diluted in solid.
(d) gas diluted in gas.
Q.20. Which of the following containing alkali is used in photography?
(a) Aluminum hydroxide
(b) Silver bromide
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride.
Q.21. Gober gas (Biogas) especially contains
(a) Methane.
(b) Ethane as well as butane.
(c) propane as well as butane.
(d) methane, ethane, propane as well as propylene.
Q.22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from unfeeling oil utilises the following process
(a) Hydrolysis
(b) Oxidation
(c) Hydrogenation
(d) Ozonoloysis
Q.23. Which colour is the interrelated colour of yellow?
(a) Blue
(b) Green
(c) Orange
(d) Red
Q.24. During soaking of cloths, you make make use of of sapphire due to its
(a) improved cleaning action.
(b) correct pigmental composition.
(c) tall stately nature.
(d) really low cost.
Q.25. Of the following Indian satellites, that the single is dictated for prolonged stretch telecommunication as well as for transmitting TV programme?
(a) INSAT-A
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Bhaskara
(d) Rohini
Q.26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ per air wave broadcasting?
(a) Amplitude Movement
(b) Anywhere Movement
(c) Amplitude Matching
(d) Amplitude Modulation.
Q.27. Who is the writer of Gandhi’s the the single preferred Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?
(a) Purandar Das
(b) Shyamal Bhatt
(c) Narsi Mehta
(d) Sant Gyaneshwar
Q.28. Which the single of the following is not the butterfly borne disease?
(a) Dengu fever
(b) Filariasis
(c) Sleeping sickness
(d) Malaria
Q.29. What is the principal ore of aluminium?
(a) Dolomite
(b) Copper
(c) Lignite
(d) Bauxite
Q.30. Which nation is the monitor for assent talks in in between the LTTE as well as the Sri Lankan Government?
(a) The US
(b) Norway
(c) India
(d) The UK
Q.31. The top physique that approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Development Council
(c) The Union Cabinet
(d) Finance Ministry
Q.32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for
(a) ” all alternative things non-static ”
(b) “other things increasing”
(c) “other things being equal”
(d) “all alternative things decreasing”
Q.33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Rekha
(c) Dilip Kumar
(d) Shabana Azmi
Q.34. Purchasing Power Parity speculation is compared with
(a) Interest Rate.
(b) Bank Rate.
(c) Wage Rate.
(d) Exchange Rate.
Q.35. India’s greatest craving currently is
(a) the Indian Railways.
(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.
(c) the India Power Sector.
(d) the India Telecommunication System.
Q.36. The central group obliged for calculating approximately National Income in India is
(a) Indian Statistical Institute.
(b) Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Central Statistical Organisation.
(d) National Council for Applied Economics as well as Research.
Q.37. Which of the following has the solitary right of arising banking (except the single rupee coins as well as notes) in India?
(a) The Governor of India
(b) The Planning Commission
(c) The State Bank of India
(d) The Reserve Bank of India
Q.38. In the bill sum of the Government of India the disproportion in in between sum output as well as sum taking is called.
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Budget deficit
(c) Revenue deficit
(d) Current deficit
Q.39. Excise avocation upon the commodity is upon credit with anxiety to its
(a) production.
(b) prolongation as well as sale.
(c) Production as well as transportation.
(d) Production, travel as well as sale.
Q.40. In the US, the President is inaugurated by
(a) The Senate.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) The House of Representatives.
(d) The Congress.
Q.41. Fascism believes in
(a) Peaceful change
(b) Force
(c) Tolerance
(d) Basic Rights for the individual
Q.42. Which is the many necessary duty of an entrepreneur?
(a) Supervision
(b) Management
(c) Marketing
(d) Risk bearing
Q.43. Knowledge, technical skill, preparation ‘etc.’ in economics, have been regarded as
(a) social-overhead capital.
(b) tellurian capital.
(c) discernible earthy capital.
(d) operative capital.
Q.44. What is the operation of Agni III, the long-range ballistic missile, test-fired by India recently?
(a) 2,250 km
(b) 3,500 km
(c) 5,000 km
(d) 1,000 km
Q.45. Nathu Laa, the place where India-China limit traffic has been resumed after 44 years, is located upon the Indian limit in
(a) Sikkim.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu as well as Kashmir.
Q.46. M. Damodaran is the
(a) Chairman, Unit Trust of India.
(b) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) Chairman, Securities as well as Exchange Board of India.
(d) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India.
Q.47. What is the name of the Light Combat Aircraft grown by India indigenously?
(a) BrahMos
(b) Chetak
(c) Astra
(d) Tejas
Q.48. Who is the Prime Minister of Great Britain?
(a) Tony Blair
(b) Jack Straw
(c) Robin Cook
(d) Gordon Brown.
Q.49. The 2010 World Cup Football Tournament will be hold in
(a) France.
(b) China.
(c) Germany.
(d) South Africa.
Q.50. Who is the benefaction Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) Navin Chawla
(b) N.Gopalswamy
(c) T.S.krishnamoorty
(d) B.B.Tandon
Q.51. The pretension of the book not long ago created by Jaswant Singh, former Minister of External Affair, is
(a) A call of Honour – In the Service of Emergent Inida
(b) Whither Secular India?
(c) Ayodhya as well as Aftermath
(d) Shining India as well as BJP.
Q.52. What was the strange name of “Nurjahan”?
(a) Jabunnisa
(b) Fatima Begum
(c) Mehrunnisa
(d) Jahanara
Q.53. Which of the following pairs is not rightly suited ?
(a) Lord Dallhousie- Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Lord Minto- Indian Councils Act, 1909
(c) Lord Wellesley- Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Lord Curzon- Vernacular Press Act, 1878
Q.54. The range of Bengal was partitioned in to dual tools in 1905 by
(a) Lord Lytton.
(b) Lord Ripon.
(c) Lord Dufferin.
(d) Lord Curzon.
Q.55. The necessary facilities of the Indus Valley Civilization was
(a) ceremony of forces of nature.
(b) orderly city life.
(c) rural farming.
(d) standing society.
Q.56. Name the collateral of Pallavas.
(a) Kanchi.
(b) Vattapi.
(c) Trichnapalli.
(d) Mahabalipuram.
Q.57. The Home Rule League was due by
(a) M.K.Gandhi
(b) B.G.Tilak
(c) Ranade
(d) K.T.Telang
Q.58. The Simon Commission was boycotted by the Indians because
(a) it sought tocurb polite liberties.
(b) it due to assign India.
(c) it was an all-white elect Indian representation.
(d) it due measures for nationalism.
Q.59. Storm of gases have been manifest in the cover of the Sun during
(a) Cyclones
(b) Anti-cyclones
(c) Lunar-eclipse
(d) Solar eclipse.
Q.60. The Indian Councils Act of 1990 is compared with
(a) The Montagu Decleration.
(b) The Montagu- Chelmsford Reforms.
(c) The Morley-Minto Reforms.
(d) The Rowlatt Act.
Q.61. The age of tree can be dynamic some-more or reduction fairly by
(a) counting the series of branches.
(b) measuring the tallness ,of the tree.
(c) measuring the hole of the trunk.
(d) counting the series of rings in the trunk.
Q.62. Of all micro-organisms, the many variable as well as versatile are
(a) Viruses
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae d) Fungi
Q.63. What is an endoscope?
(a) It is an visual instrument used to see inside the supplying nourishment canal
(b) it is device that is propitious upon the chest of the studious to regularize the strange heart beats
(c) It is an instrument used for examining ear disorders
(d) It is an instrument for recording electrical signals constructed by the tellurian muscles.
Q.64. The mildew in that the sugarine turn enlarge is well well known as
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Diabetes insipidus
(c) Diabetes imperfectus
(d) Diabetes sugarensis
Q.65. The President of India is inaugurated by
(a) members of both Houses of the Parliament.
(b) members of both houses of Parliament of State Legislatures.
(c) members of both Houses of the State Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Elected members of both Houses of the Parliament as well as members of Legislative Assemblies.
Q.66. The nitrogen benefaction in the ambience is
(a) of no make make use of of to plants.
(b) damaging of plants.
(c) without delay employed by plants.
(d) employed by micro-organisms.
Q.67. Diamond as well as Graphite are
(a) allotropes
(b) isomorphous
(c) isomers
(d) isobars
Q.68. Kayak is kind of
(a) genealogical tool.
(b) boat.
(c) ship.
(d) weapon.
Q.69. Which of the following has the top calorific value?
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins.
Q.70. Rotation of crops means
(a) flourishing of opposite crops in period to say dirt fertility.
(b) the little crops have been flourishing again as well as again.
(c) dual or some-more crops have been grown concurrently to enlarge productivity.
(d) None of these.
Q.71. Suez Canal connects
(a) Pacific Ocean as well as Atlantic Ocean.
(b) Mediterranean Sea as well as Red Sea.
(c) Lake Huron as well as Lake Erie.
(d) Lake Erie as well as Lake Ontario.
Q.72. Which of the following ports has the largest hinterland?
(a) Kandla
(b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Vishkhapatnam.
Q.73. “Slash as well as Burn agriculture” is the name since to
(a) routine of potato cultivation.
(b) routine of deforestation.
(c) churned framing.
(d) changeable cultivation.
Q.74. The categorical reason for deforestation in Middle East is
(a) extreme fuel timber collection.
(b) extreme dirt erosion.
(c) floods.
(d) building the whole of roads.
Q.75. Recharging of H2O list depends on
(a) volume of rainfall.
(b) service of the area.
(c) foliage of the area.
(d) volume of percolation.
Answers Part :
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (b) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a)

RESERVE BANK OF INDIA OFFICERS GRADE 'B' EXAM 2010

 English Language

Direction (Qs. 1 to 5): Which of a phrases (1), (2), (3) as well as (4) since subsequent any judgment should reinstate a word printed in confidant in a since judgment to have it grammatically correct? If a judgment is scold as it is as well as no improvement is required, afterwards symbol your answer as (5) :
Q.1. Ultimately he viewed a honour he deserve.
(1) Gained a honour he deserve
(2) Received a honour he deserves
(3) Received a honour he deserved
(4) Bags a honour he deserve
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Received a honour he deserved
Q.2. we am all conflicting in a matter of a little of a Managers.
(1) Totally dispute to the
(2) Absolutely dispute by the
(3) Totally conflicting to the
(4) Completely conflicting in the
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Totally conflicting to the
Q.3. Gayatri incited down a pursuit suggest to house her friend.
(1) Job offering in accommodate
(2) Job offers for accommodate
(3) Job suggest to accommodating
(4) Job suggest in accommodate
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (5)No improvement required
Q.4. She was sensitive which everybody of them have been wakeful of a fact.
(1) Were wakeful of
(2) Are wakeful of
(3) Was wakeful of
(4) Is wakeful of
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (3)Was wakeful of
Q.5. She has being venturing in to areas which she had always avoided in a past.
(1) Has been venturing into
(2) Has venturing into
(3) Would venturing into
(4) Had venturing into
(5) No improvement required
Ans. (1)Has been venturing into
Directions (Qs. 6 to 10): Read any judgment to find out either there is any grammatical blunder or vernacular blunder in it. The error, if any, will be in a single partial of a sentence. The number of which partial will be your answer. If there is no blunder (ignore errors of punctuation, if any), afterwards your answer will be (5).
Q.6. They never suspicion (1) / which Joshi is (2) / oldest than a alternative (3) / Professors in a Faculty. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (3)
Q.7. Taken in to care (1) / a recommendation of his (2) / colleagues he motionless (3) / to stay in a Institute. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans. (1)
Q.8. we am approaching hit (1) / we someday in (2) / subsequent week to (3) / plead with we in detail. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans.
(1)
Q.9. The military has creation (1) / any bid to yield (2) / most suitable assistance as well as (3) / courtesy to any citizen. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans.
(1)
Q.10. He cannot repel (1) / all his income (2) / unless he do not (3) / give allege notice. (4) / No blunder (5)
Ans
(3&4)
Directions (Qs. eleven to 25):  Read a following thoroughfare to answer these questions since subsequent it. Certain difference / phrases have been printed in confidant to assistance we fix up them while answering a little of a questions : The self-murder attacks by belligerent Palestinian groups murdering immeasurable numbers of Israeli civilians as well as a oppressive Israeli response, have lifted a renewed hopes of assent in a region. It is Arafat?s care as well as management which have been being exceedingly tested in a idealisation proviso of a west Asian crisis.
By accusing a Palestinian Authority (PA) of ancillary terrorism by groups, Israel hopes to put vigour upon Arafat to act. Arafat, upon a alternative hand, has never looked a reduction powerful force than he does today. If he acts conflicting a militants as well as elements in his own Fatah transformation sympathetic to them, he risks a Palestinian polite conflict. But if he chooses to do nothing, he faces wearing divided of his management as well as all explain to a executive purpose in a assent process. Whatever he does, sections of a Palestinians will reason which he has left as well distant as well as Israel which he has not left for enough. This is, of course, because Arafat has constantly shrunk from tough decision. He has refrained from curbing a belligerent groups, explaining his inaction as required to say Palestinian unity.
The Palestinian leadership?s incapacity to urge mercantile conditions for a people has been a wilful means in a wearing divided of a capability to act. Palestinians in Gaza have targeted a PA as being obliged for their condition. The Militant organizations have capitalized upon a PA?s disaster to settle a functioning executive infrastructure by environment up a parallel welfare complement with a assistance of a millions of dollars. Though a Palestinian confidence forces explain to have arrested some-more than 100 militants after a self-murder explosve attacks in Israel, the other identical belligerent groups sojourn defiant, assured of their renouned await as well as of a faith which in a idealisation research a PA care will stop reduced of wilful movement against them.

That a belligerent groups suffer renouned await in Gaza is frequency surprising. The Gaza Strip currently resembles a immeasurable jail stay in which a little 1.2 million Palestinians have been crammed. Despite the Oslo Accord, 7000 Israeli settlers still sojourn in twenty percent of a Gaza?s area as well as have been stable by heavily armed Israeli forces. With a brand new besiege of as well as endless incursion into PA tranquil territories, a Israeli supervision has placed a total polite multitude in Palestine underneath siege. Over 450 NGOs, 8 universities as well as countless alternative educational, civic, social, developmental as well as illness institutions have had their work detained as well as their critical services to a race blocked. An general discussion upon Israel?s diagnosis of human rights in West Bank as well as Gaza, attended by signatories to a 1949 Geneva Conventions, which has non-stop in Switzerland vital Israeli as well as American protests, is approaching to censor Israel for a diagnosis of civilians in a Palestinian territories.

Arafat?s station in in between Palestinians rests upon a management conferred upon a PA by a general encampment to paint as well as verbalise for a Palestinians. Even a vital belligerent group has so distant never plainly challenged Arafat?s leadership. Israel?s idealisation infamous attacks destined conflicting a PA as well as Arafat benefaction a general encampment with a risk which this precarious change of energy in a Palestinian encampment might be destroyed. Continuance of a Israeli attacks can usually further radicalize as well as toughen a attitudes of typical Palestinians. On a alternative hand, Israeli moves to solidify serve enlargement of Jewish settlements in a West Bank as well as Gaza and, as shortly as security conditions assent it, palliate a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns?however remote such measures crop up usually now?alone can revive a management of a PA as well as give it a chance to get a hold upon Palestinian militancy.
Q.11. Which of a following factors have lifted a goal for assent in West Asia?
A. Killings of Israeli civilians
B. Harsh reply of Israelites
C. Revocation of Oslo Accord
(1) Only A as well as C
(2) Only B as well as C
(3) Both A as well as B
(4) Either A or B
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Both A as well as B
Q.12. Which of a following explains a miss of movement upon a partial of Palestinian leader?
(1) He fears a armed forces movement conflicting him
(2) This according to him will bind assent process
(3) He feels which this step will keep Palestinians united
(4) He is severely disturbed about a lapse of his energy base
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)He is severely disturbed about a degeneration of his energy base
Q.13. What is idealisation research of alternative identical belligerent groups?
(1) The PA care will usually movement if a clear forceful action is taken upon a PA
(2) The suicidal attacks will usually irritate a situation
(3) The PA care should be changed
(4) The movement upon a Palestinians was justified
(5) None of these
Ans. (5) None of these
Q.14. Which of a following difference is usually conflicting in definition to a word detained as used in a passage?
(1) Hindered
(2) Facilitated
(3) Felicitated
(4) Stopped
(5) Courage
Ans. (1)Hindered
Q.15. What does a word vital meant as used in a passage?
(1) Notwithstanding
(2) Concurring
(3) Welcoming
(4) Criticizing
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Notwithstanding
Q.16.Which of a following most suitable describes a definition of a word challenged as used in a passage?
(1) Questioned
(2) Accepted
(3) Attacked
(4) Scared
(5) None of these
Ans:(1)Questioned
Q. 17.Which of a following is a most identical word as accusing as used in a passage?
(1) Abusing
(2) Blaming
(3) Charging
(4) Responding
(5) Praising
Ans. (2)Blaming
Q.18. Which of a following is a approaching result of International Conference which is in swell in Switzerland?
(1) To devaluate 1949 Geneva Convention
(2) Impose censorship upon promotion of PA
(3) To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties
(4) To put a quell upon Israel?s policies whilst treating civilians in an visitor territory
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)To set up considerate family in in between Conflicting parties
Q.19. Which of a following most suitable explains a word infamous as used in a passage?
(1) Dangerous
(2) Fatal
(3) Reoccurring as well as cyclic
(4) Cyclic though not reoccurring
(5) None of these
Ans. (3)Reoccurring as well as cyclic
Q.20. Which of a following most suitable explains a word remote as used in a passage?
(1) Far divided from reality
(2) Distant
(3) Most approaching to happen
(4) Control in someone else?s hand
(5) None of these
Ans. (1)Far divided from reality
Q.21. Who according to a thoroughfare conferred a management to PA?
(1) Arafat
(2) Israel
(3) Militant groups
(4) International community
(5) None of these
Ans. (4)International community
Q.22. Which of a following can revive a degenerating management of a PA?
A. Arresting a enlargement of Jewish settlements
B. Easening a mercantile besiege of Palestinian towns
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Either A or B
(4) Both A as well as B together
(5) Neither A or B
Ans (4)Both A as well as B together
Q.23. Which of a following is a most conflicting in definition as a word shrunk as used in a passage?
(1)Coming forward
(2)Abdicating
(3)Control
(4)Expand
(5)None of these
Ans (1)Coming forward
Q.24. What might be a start of successive Israeli attacks?
(1) It might strap a disastrous perspective amongst a polite Palestinians
(2) It might fall short militancy from a simple roots
(3) It might reanimate a weakening care of a PA
(4) It might lift belligerent activities
(5) None of these
Ans (4)It might lift belligerent activities
Q.25. What dangers have been being viewed by a International Community?
(1)Both a nations might get broken if fight erupts
(2)The PA as well as Israel will never set upon a deal
(3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians
(4)The militancy might widespread in alternative countries also
(5)None of these
Ans. (3)The attacks conflicting a PA might fall short a change of energy in Palestinians
Directions (Qs. twenty-six to 35): In a following thoroughfare there have been blanks, any of which has been numbered. These numbers have been printed subsequent a thoroughfare as well as conflicting each, 5 difference are suggested, a single of which fits a vacant appropriately. Find out a suitable word in any case:
Whatever wealth India enjoyed in a seventeenth century left when a Mughal Empire ???(26) apart. The most evident means of this relapse was a religious intolerance, which led to a open rebellion. It was to ???(27) these revolts which a extremist woman monarch outlayed ???(28) years in a field, with measureless armies immoderate a revenues of the country. There were, however, some-more entrenched ???(29) The crime of officials as well as a hardship of a rank as well as file usually ???(30) divided a empire?s hold up blood. For sometime, there had been a conspicuous decrease in a impression of a statute class. Wars of period ???(31) wiped out a heading families, as well as brand new red red blood from executive Middle East was no ???(32) recruited for a aloft bureaucratic posts. Finally, a Mughal Empire was an visitor regime. It continues to be so ???(33) Akbar?s process of conciliation was abandoned, as well as it wore itself out perplexing to say a energy ???(34) a constant opposition, usually right divided as well as afterwards sincere though regularly present, of a ???(35) citizens.
Q.26. (1)Joined
(2)Broke
(3)Dashed
(4)Banged
(5)Became
Ans. (2)Broke
Q.27. (1)Run out
(2)Crash
(3)Crush
(4)Cajole
(5)Motivate
Ans (3)Crush
Q.28. (1)No
(2)Hardly
(3)Many
(4)Inexpensive
(5)Most
Ans. (3)Many
Q.29. (1)Variables
(2)Attributes
(3)Characteristics
(4)Causes
(5)Affect
Ans. (4)Causes
Q.30. (1)Drained
(2)Gone
(3)Sucked
(4)Released
(5)Went
Ans (1)Drained
Q.31. (1)Has
(2)Have
(3)Was
(4)Did
(5)Had
Ans. (5)Had
Q.32.(1)Longer
(2)Pumped
(3)Far
(4)Candidate
(5)Shorter
Ans. (1)Longer
Q.33. (1)At
(2)Into
(3)Over
(4)After
(5)Before
Ans. (4)After
Q.34. (1)Far
(2)At
(3)Against
(4)Favouring
(5)For
Ans (3)Against
Q.35. (1)Discontented
(2)Weeping
(3)Ruling
(4)Calm
(5)Contented
Ans: (1)Discontented
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40):  icon razz RBI Exam Question,RBI Exam Question of English Language Subject,RBI Exam Question 2010 ick out a most in effect word/phrase from a since difference to fill in a blanks to have a sentences meaningfully complete:
Q.,36. Tiwari?s weill-wishers went to a impassioned to _____ his commercial operation reputation.
(1)Speak
(2)Enhance
(3)Cajole
(4)Provoke
(5)Advocate
Ans. (2)Enhance
Q.37. A organisation of youth college boys _____ a top rise of a Shivalik operation of a Himalayas.
(1)Scaled
(2)Walked
(3)Climb up
(4)Avoided
(5)Won
Ans. (1)Scaled
Q.38. A special programme to lift a customary of vital of a encampment folks has been _____ by a Government.
(1)Affixed
(2)Stalled
(3)Glued
(4)Launched
(5)Propose
Ans. (4)Launched
Q.39. A flock of elephants _____ ready to conflict a lion.
(1)Were
(2)Is
(3)Was
(4)Are
(5)Has been
Ans. (2)Is
Q.40. It is not probable this year to run this association with so most employees, but augmenting a _____ of deficit.
(1)Loss
(2)Altitude
(3)Gain
(4)Magnitude
(5)Extend
Ans. (4)Magnitude

RBI GRADE 'B' OFFICERS EXAM 2010

Q.1. In that sort of account, banks in all don’t compensate interest—
(A) Saving Account
(B) Current Account
(C) Fixed Deposit Account
(D) Interest is regularly upon credit in all sorts of account

Q.2. A bank station sequence would be befitting for paying—
(A) Telephone accounts
(B) Electricity accounts
(C) Grocery bills
(D) Mortgage repayments

Q.3. Payment of a coupon cannot be done upon a income opposite of bank if a coupon is—
(A) Bearer
(B) Cross
(C) Order
(D) All of these

Q.4. Which of a following is not Commercial Bank ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Canra Bank
(D) Oriental Bank of Commerce

Q.5. What is a Bank breeze ?
(A) Letter from a Bank
(B) Cheque that a bank draws upon itself
(C) Instraction to a landowner to pick up a customer’s debt
(D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment

Q.6. The necessary evil of whatever serves as income is that it must—
(A) Be released by a State
(B) Be in all acceptable
(C) Not be unconditionally fiduciary
(D) Have a little instrinsic value

Q.7. One of a following is not an e.g. of Near-Money, that ?
(A) Bill of Exchange
(B) Bonds as well as Debentures
(C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd.
(D) Treasury bills of a Government of India

Q.8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that that is—
(A) Accepted by abroad banks only
(B) Accepted during a moment in lieu of gold
(C) Backed by bullion or silver
(D) Decreed as income by a government

Q.9. Money is—
(A) Acceptable usually when it has unique value
(B) Constant in purchasing power
(C) The many glass of all assets
(D) All of a above

Q.10. Greshan’s law states that—
(A) Bad income promotes great income in a system
(B) Bad income drives great income out of circulation
(C) Good income drives bad income out of circulation
(D) Good income promotes bad income in a system

Q.11. Value of Money—
(A) Is eccentric of a cost level
(B) Is without delay associated to a cost level
(C) Is inversely associated to a cost level
(D) None of a above

Q.12. Demand lift acceleration can be caused by income factors including—
(A) A tumble in expenditure expenditure
(B) A pointy enlarge in unemployment
(C) A high rebate in approach taxation
(D) An enlarge in Income Tax

Q.13. The routine of deplation tends to favour—
(A) Debtor as well as Creditiors a like
(B) Debtor during a responsibility of Creditors
(C) Creditors during a responsibility of Debtors
(D) Profit receivers during a responsibility of bound income receivers

Q.14. Which of a following matter is not utterly loyal ?
(A) An enlarge in a supply of income will outcome in inflation
(B) Cost acceleration occurs when prices climb to cover increasing cause costs
(C) Inflation occurs when a worth of income declines
(D) Inflation will have a outcome of redistributing incomes inside of a country

Q.15. Which of a following people is many approaching to good from an inflationary incident ?
(A) A chairman who buys units from a Unit Trust
(B) A chairman who keeps his resources underneath a office building during home
(C) A chairman creates a vast in isolation loan to a friend
(D) A chairman who takes out a debt with a office building society

Q.16. The principal guilt of a Joint Stock Bank relates to—
(A) Its investment abroad
(B) Its investment during home
(C) Repayment of a customer’s deposits
(D) Its mandate to have special deposits when requested

Q.17. Which of a following is not a duty of a Commercial Banks ?
(A) Acting as a lender of final resort
(B) Lending to a in isolation as well as open sectors
(C) The sustenance of a coupon complement for environment debts
(D) The sustenance of protected deposition facilities

Q.18. When a Commercial Bank emanate credit areas that have been in outcome as well as increases—
(A) The inhabitant debt
(B) The supply of money
(C) The purchasing energy of a rupee
(D) The genuine resources of a country

Q.19. A patron does not need a bank comment to obtain—
(A) A Loan
(B) A Cheque Card
(C) A Banker’s Draft
(D) An Overdraft

Q.20. Which of a following is not a guilt of Commercial Banks—
(A) Security Holdings
(B) Treasury deposition during banks
(C) Demand deposits as well as time deposits
(D) Borrowing from Central Bank

Q.21. ‘Not negotiable’ created upon a coupon channel means—
(A) The coupon cannot be paid to any a single though a payee
(B) The coupon is stream usually for remuneration of a contract for that it is done out
(C) An honest chairman reception a stolen coupon is probable to compensate off a legitimate owner
(D) The coupon contingency be paid in to a bank

Q.22. The Central Bank is not approaching to perform a duty of—
(A) Acting as a clearing house
(B) The landowner to a government
(C) Accepting deposition from Commercial Banks
(D) Accepting deposits from ubiquitous public

Q.23. Increase in bank rates in all is followed by—
(A) An enlarge in marketplace rate of interest
(B) A tumble in marketplace rates of interest
(C) A climb usually in a deposits rates though not a lending rates
(D) A climb usually in a lending rates

Q.24. The vital quantitative financial apparatus accessible with a Central Bank is—
(A) Retioning of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Margin requirements
(D) Reserve comparative measure requirements

Q.25. Bank contingency exclude remuneration of a coupon where—
(A) Cheque is not dated
(B) Where coupon is stale, i.e. date has expired
(C) Payment has been stopped by customer
(D) The coupon is not presented during operative hours of Bank

Q.26. A ‘Stale’ coupon is a single that is—
(A) Over 6 months old
(B) Converning an owing payment
(C) Cancelled by a drawer
(D) Written upon an comment that is overdrawn

Q.27. When a Central Bank sells securities, as a result—
(A) The income resources during a ordering of a blurb banks increase
(B) The income resources of a blurb banks sojourn unchanged
(C) The income resources during a ordering of blurb banks get diminished
(D) None of a above

Q.28. When a coupon is returned by a bank noted ‘Refer to Drawer’ this equates to a drawer—
(A) Has educated a bank not to compensate a cheque
(B) Whishes to be contacted prior to a coupon is cashed
(C) Has improperly finished a coupon as well as contingency scold it prior to payment
(D) Had deficient supports in his comment to compensate a cheque

Q.29. The stream Bank Rate is—
(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(D) 9·5%

Q.30. It has been done mandatory for Non-Banking Financing Companies to get themselves purebred with … prior to Jul 8, 1997.
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) Government of India
(D) None of a above

Q.31. India ranks series … between a countries with a greatest expansion intensity in a universe according to a ultimate inform of universe Economic Forum.
(A) Six
(B) Five
(C) Four
(D) Three

Q.32. Which is a ‘most rival country’ of a universe according to a ultimate inform of universe Economic Forum ?
(A) Hong Kong
(B) Singapore
(C) United State of America
(D) Netherlands

Q.33. The extent slight extent of seductiveness upon post shipment rupee credit upon direct bills for movement duration upto 90 days is—
(A) 13%
(B) 14%
(C) 15%
(D) 16%

Q.34. Which of a following matter is scold about India according to a World Bank’s ultimate calculations ?
(A) India’s per capita inhabitant resources is $ 25000
(B) India’s per capita incomeis $ 360
(C) India’s per capita income (according to purchasing energy parity) is $ 2390
(D) All of a above

Q.35. Scheduled blurb banks available nonperforming resources (NPAs) of … during a finish of Mar 2006-07 opposite 1·8% during 2005-06.
(A) 2·3%
(B) 3·3%
(C) 1·5%
(D) 7·9%

Q.36. Which of a following is not a apparatus in a hands of RBI to carry out a inflationary vigour in a nation ?
(A) Bank Rate (BR)
(B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

Q.37. Which of a following is/are enclosed in Legal Tender Money in India ?
(A) Coins as well as banking notes
(B) Coins as well as bank drafts
(C) Currency records as well as SDRs
(D) Currency records released by RBI

Q.38. Which of a following is rightly matched?
(A) CRR upon FCNR (B) Scheme—12%
(B) Bank Rate—6%
(C) SLR upon NRE deposits—31·5%
(D) CRR upon NRE—13%

Q.39. India’s First Financial Archive has been set up at—
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolkata

Q.40. Which of a following Bank joined with Oriented Bank of Commerce ?
(A) New Bank of India
(B) Punjab Co-operative Bank
(C) Bari Doab Bank
(D) (B) as well as (C) both

Answers : 

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D) 

Wednesday, October 27, 2010

RBI OFFICERS GRADE 'B' EXAM PAPER 2009


GENERAL AWARENESS

1. In which type of account, banks generally don’t pay interest—
(A) Saving Account
(B) Current Account
(C) Fixed Deposit Account
(D) Interest is always payable in all types of account
2. A bank standing order would be suitable for paying—
(A) Telephone accounts
(B) Electricity accounts
(C) Grocery bills
(D) Mortgage repayments
3. Payment of a cheque cannot be made on a cash counter of bank if the cheque is—
(A) Bearer
(B) Cross
(C) Order
(D) All of these
4. Which of the following is not Commercial Bank ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Canra Bank
(D) Oriental Bank of Commerce
5. What is the Bank draft ?
(A) Letter from the Bank
(B) Cheque which a bank draws on itself
(C) Instraction to a banker to collect a customer’s debt
(D) Instruction not to honour a stop payment
6. The essential characteristic of whatever serves as money is that it must—
(A) Be issued by the State
(B) Be generally acceptable
(C) Not be wholly fiduciary
(D) Have some instrinsic value
7. One of the following is not an example of Near-Money, which ?
(A) Bill of Exchange
(B) Bonds and Debentures
(C) Equity shares of Ranbaxy Company Ltd.
(D) Treasury bills of the Government of India
8. ‘Fiat Money’ is that which is—
(A) Accepted by overseas banks only
(B) Accepted temporarily in lieu of gold
(C) Backed by gold or silver
(D) Decreed as money by the government
9. Money is—
(A) Acceptable only when it has intrinsic value
(B) Constant in purchasing power
(C) The most liquid of all assets
(D) All of the above
10. Greshan’s law states that—
(A) Bad money promotes good money in the system
(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation
(C) Good money drives bad money out of circulation
(D) Good money promotes bad money in the system
11. Value of Money—
(A) Is independent of the price level
(B) Is directly related to the price level
(C) Is inversely related to the price level
(D) None of the above
12. Demand pull inflation can be caused by money factors including—
(A) A fall in consumption expenditure
(B) A sharp increase in unemployment
(C) A steep reduction in direct taxation
(D) An increase in Income Tax
13. The process of deplation tends to favour—
(A) Debtor and Creditiors a like
(B) Debtor at the expense of Creditors
(C) Creditors at the expense of Debtors
(D) Profit receivers at the expense of fixed income receivers
14. Which of the following statement is not completely true ?
(A) An increase in the supply of money will result in inflation
(B) Cost inflation occurs when prices rise to cover increased factor costs
(C) Inflation occurs when the value of money declines
(D) Inflation will have the effect of redistributing incomes within a country
15. Which of the following people is most likely to benefit from an inflationary situation ?
(A) A person who buys units from the Unit Trust
(B) A person who keeps his savings under the floor at home
(C) A person makes a large private loan to a friend
(D) A person who takes out a mortgage with a building society
16. The principal liability of a Joint Stock Bank relates to—
(A) Its investment abroad
(B) Its investment at home
(C) Repayment of its customer’s deposits
(D) Its requirements to make special deposits when requested
17. Which of the following is not a function of the Commercial Banks ?
(A) Acting as a lender of last resort
(B) Lending to the private and public sectors
(C) The provision of a cheque system for setting debts
(D) The provision of safe deposit facilities
18. When the Commercial Bank create credit areas which are in effect and increases—
(A) The national debt
(B) The supply of money
(C) The purchasing power of the rupee
(D) The real wealth of the country
19. A customer does not require a bank account to obtain—
(A) A Loan
(B) A Cheque Card
(C) A Banker’s Draft
(D) An Overdraft
20. Which of the following is not a liability of Commercial Banks—
(A) Security Holdings
(B) Treasury deposit at banks
(C) Demand deposits and time deposits
(D) Borrowing from Central Bank
21. ‘Not negotiable’ written on a cheque crossing means—
(A) The cheque cannot be paid to any one but the payee
(B) The cheque is valid only for payment of the transaction for which it is made out
(C) An honest person receiving a stolen cheque is liable to repay the rightful owner
(D) The cheque must be paid into a bank
22. The Central Bank is not expected to perform the function of—
(A) Acting as a clearing house
(B) The banker to the government
(C) Accepting deposit from Commercial Banks
(D) Accepting deposits from general public
23. Increase in bank rates generally is followed by—
(A) An increase in market rate of interest
(B) A fall in market rates of interest
(C) A rise only in the deposits rates but not the lending rates
(D) A rise only in the lending rates
24. The major quantitative monetary tool available with the Central Bank is—
(A) Retioning of credit
(B) Regulation of consumer credit
(C) Margin requirements
(D) Reserve ratio requirements
25. Bank must refuse payment of a cheque where—
(A) Cheque is not dated
(B) Where cheque is stale, i.e. date has expired
(C) Payment has been stopped by customer
(D) The cheque is not presented during working hours of Bank
26. A ‘Stale’ cheque is one that is—
(A) Over six months old
(B) Converning an overdue payment
(C) Cancelled by the drawer
(D) Written on an account which is overdrawn
27. When the Central Bank sells securities, as a result—
(A) The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks increase
(B) The cash resources of the commercial banks remain unchanged
(C) The cash resources at the disposal of commercial banks get diminished
(D) None of the above
28. When a cheque is returned by the bank marked ‘Refer to Drawer’ this means the drawer—
(A) Has instructed the bank not to pay the cheque
(B) Whishes to be contacted before the cheque is cashed
(C) Has improperly completed the cheque and must correct it before payment
(D) Had insufficient funds in his account to pay the cheque
29. The current Bank Rate is—
(A) 6%
(B) 8%
(C) 9%
(D) 9·5%
30. It has been made compulsory for Non-Banking Financing Companies to get themselves registered with … before July 8, 1997.
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) Government of India
(D) None of the above
31. India ranks number … among the countries with the biggest growth potential in the world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum.
(A) Six
(B) Five
(C) Four
(D) Three
32. Which is the ‘most competitive country’ of the world according to the latest report of world Economic Forum ?
(A) Hong Kong
(B) Singapore
(C) United State of America
(D) Netherlands
33. The maximum permissible limit of interest on postshipment rupee credit on demand bills for transit period upto 90 days is—
(A) 13%
(B) 14%
(C) 15%
(D) 16%
34. Which of the following statement is correct about India according to the World Bank’s latest calculations ?
(A) India’s per capita national wealth is $ 25000
(B) India’s per capita incomeis $ 360
(C) India’s per capita income (according to purchasing power parity) is $ 2390
(D) All of the above
35. Scheduled commercial banks recorded nonperforming assets (NPAs) of … at the end of March 2006-07 against 1·8% during 2005-06.
(A) 2·3%
(B) 3·3%
(C) 1·5%
(D) 7·9%
36. Which of the following is not a tool in the hands of RBI to control the inflationary pressure in the country ?
(A) Bank Rate (BR)
(B) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
(C) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
(D) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
37. Which of the following is/are included in Legal Tender Money in India ?
(A) Coins and currency notes
(B) Coins and bank drafts
(C) Currency notes and SDRs
(D) Currency notes issued by RBI
38. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) CRR on FCNR (B) Scheme—12%
(B) Bank Rate—6%
(C) SLR on NRE deposits—31·5%
(D) CRR on NRE—13%
39. India’s First Financial Archive has been set up at—
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Kolkata
40. Which of the following Bank merged with Oriented Bank of Commerce ?
(A) New Bank of India
(B) Punjab Co-operative Bank
(C) Bari Doab Bank
(D) (B) and (C) both

Answers : 

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (D)

Sunday, October 24, 2010

OBC CLERKS RECRUITMENT


Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC)
(A Government of Indian Undertaking)
Head Office, Harsha Bhawan, E-Block, Connaught Place, New Delhi – 110001

Oriental Bank of India (OBC), a leading public sector bank invites Online Applications from Indian citizens for 1105 posts in Clerical Cadre.


  • Clerks : 1105 posts, Pay Scale : Rs.4410-13210/- (Revising soon), Age : Min - 18-28 years, Qualification : Degree in any discipline or its equivalent with any class/division  OR 10+2 examination or its equivalent with minimum 50%.
Selection Procedure: The selection will be on the basis of written test and interview. Written test will be conducted on 09/01/2011.

Application Fee : Rs. 300/- (Rs. 50/- for SC/ST/PH/Ex-SM) to be deposited at any of the branch of the Oriental Bank of Commerce only in Current A/c No. 00071011002147 from 25/10/2010 to 24/11/2010.

How To Apply: Apply online. Online application will be open from 25/10/2010 to 24/11/2010 at OBC  website.

Details are available at https://www.obcindia.co.in/obcnew/upload/recruitmentResult/Advertisement_clerk-2010-11.doc , bank deposite slip is available at https://www.obcindia.co.in/obcnew/upload/recruitmentResult/DEPOSIT_RECEIPTCLERKS.doc and apply online at http://registration.sifyitest.com/obcclerical/

Tuesday, October 19, 2010

MADHYA BHARAT GRAMIN BANK RECRUITMENT 2010

Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank (MBGB)
(Sponsor by SBI)
Head Office : Poddar Colony, Opposite Mahila Polytechnic Hostel, Tili Road, Sagar (MP)


Applications are invited from Indian Citizens domicile of Madhya Pradesh forthe following posts : .
  1. Officer Scale-I Group-A : 39 posts (SUR-22, OBC-10, SC-5,ST-2), Pay Scale : Rs.14500-25700, Age : 18-28 years
  2. Office Assistant Group-B : 72 posts (UR-38, OBC-10, SC-10, ST-14), Pay Scale : Rs.7200-19300, Age : 18-28 years

Relaxation in age as per rules.

Selection by Written exam on 26/04/2009 for Officers and 19/04/2009 for Clerks and Interview.

Recruitment by a wriiten test on 23/01/2011 for Officers and on 30/01/2011 for Office Assistant followed by a Interview for selected candidates.

Application Fee : Rs. 500/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST) for the post of Officer and Rs. 300/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST) thru a Challan form to be deposited in Madhya Bharat Gramin Bank or in SBI.

How to Apply : Apply Online at  Madya Bharat Gramin Bank website only from 18/10/2010 to 18/11/2010.

Please visit http://www.mbgbank.co.in/recruitment.htm for details, challan form and online submission of the application.

Saturday, October 16, 2010

CATHOLIC SYRIAN BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS RECRUITMENT 2010


Catholic Syrian Bank (CSB), one of the oldest private banks in India with its headquarters in Kerala.CSB now employs over 2700 & has around 450 branches across the country.Catholic Syrian Bank has announced recruitment of Probationary Officer posts.
Position - Vacancies – Payscale:
Officer (Scale I) – 50 posts – Rs.21000 /month
    
Dates : Online application submission – 13.10.2010 to 22.10.2010
Date of Written Test – informed later

Eligibility: Those interested to apply for catholic syrian bank officer jobs,
* Should have scored 55% (science & engg. graduates) or 55% (arts) as on 30.9.2010
* Age not above 25 yrs as on 30.9.2010
* willing to work at any CSB branch across India


Selection: The selection process involves Written test & Interview.Depending on the performance in the test, candidates would be called for personal interview.The written test is to take place across various centres & it seems more details would be sent to applying candidates.

Application: The fee of Rs.500 (General/OBC) or Rs.250 (SC/ST) should be paid at any of the Catholic syrian bank branches, using the challan.After payment, the online application form at www.csb.co.in has to be submitted by entering the proper details.

Refer: Download the instruction of Catholic syrian bank officers recruitment & apply online at the bank website here

Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank Clerks Exam Previous Paper

 REASONING ABILITY 

This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a group of letters or words given. Four of the five are alike in a certain way, while one is different. Find out the one which is different.
Q.1. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) yellow (5) paint
Of the five, ‘black’, ‘red’, ‘green’, and ‘yellow’ form a group as they are names of colours. ‘Paint’ is not the name of a colour. Therefore (5) is the answer. Now try to solve the following question.

Q.2. (1) XZ (2) MN (3) PQ (4) BC (5) ST
Q.3. “Foot” is related to “Man” in the same way as “Hoof” is related to –––––
(1) Leg (2) Horse (3) Dog (4) Boy (5) Shoe In the above example, with which one of the five, “Hoof” has the same relationship as “Foot” has to “Man” ? The answer is “Horse”, which is answer number (2). Now try the following questions.

Q.4. “Day” is related to “Night” in the same way as “Kind” is related to –––––
(1) Cruel (2) Bright (3) Dark (4) Generous (5) Gratitude

Q.5. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word can be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) XThere may also be questions in the form of figures, designs and drawings. These may be of three types :
1. Analogies 2. Classification and 3. Series

1. Analogies :
In these questions, there are two sets of figures. the ‘Problem Figures’ and the ‘Answer Figures’. The Problem Figures are presented in two units. The first unit contains two figures and the second unit contains one figure and a question mark in place of the fourth figure. You have to find out which one of the Answer Figures should be in place of the question mark. Study the following questions based on Analogies.



Look at the first two Problem Figures. The second figure is related to the first figure in a certain way. The first figure is a square. In the second figure, the square has been bisected by a vertical line and the right half has been darkened. The third and fourth figures should have the same relationship as the first and the second have. The third figure is a circle, so in the fourth figure, the circle should be bisected by a vertical line and the right half should be darkened. Answer Figure 5 is related to the third Problem Figure in this way. Therefore the answer is “5”.



Study the first and the second figures in the Problem Figures. The first figure is a darkened square and in the second figure, there are four squares, not darkened, arranged in a particular way. That means the elements in the second figure are four times the elements in the first figure and are not darkened. In addition, the four squares are arranged in specific way and are not touching one another. The third figure is a darkened circle. Therefore, the fourth figure should have four circles which are not darkened, arranged in the same way as in the second figure. Now look at the Answer Figures. You will find that figure 1 consists of four circles which are not darkened arranged in a similar way. Therefore, the answer is “1”



For example, look at the example at Q. No. 11. Of the five figures, four figures are such that in each of them, there are two similar figures, one within the other. These four figures form a group. Figure 1 is unlike this and so does not belong to this group. Therefore the answer is “1”.
Problem–cum–Answer Figures



Note that the number of arrows is increasing by 1 everytime and that they are gradually falling towards the left. In the sixth figure there should be six arrows and they should fall further and be lying flat, i.e. they should be horizontal. The answer, therefore, is “5”. Now solve the following questions.



TEST II : NUMERICAL ABILITY - This Test is to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers. Directions : In each of the following questions one number is missing. The place where the number is missing is shown by a question mark (?). You have to find out which one of the answers shown against 1, 2, 3 and 4 can replace the question mark. If none of these four can replace the question mark, you will indicate (5) i.e. ‘None of these’ as your answer.

Q.20. 42 + 73 + 137 = ?
(1) 352 (2) 252 (3) 242 (4) 142 (5) None of these

Q.21. 20 × 1 2 = ?
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 12 (4) 20 (5) None of these

The correct answer for Q. 21 is 10. But none of the 1, 2, 3, or 4 shows this answer. Therefore your answer is 5. Some of the questions may require arithmetical reasoning. For example :
Q.22. At 10 rupee each, how many rupee will 6 apples cost ?
(1) 6 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 61 (5) 610

Q.23. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) None of these

Q.24. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs.10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs.3/- (2) Rs.5/- (3) Rs.10/- (4) Rs.20/- (5) None of these

TEST III : CLERICAL APTITUDE - There will be different types of items in this test. In the first type, in each question a combination of name and address is given in the first column at the left followed by four such combinations one each under the columns 1, 2, 3 and 4. You have to find out the combination which is exactly the same as the combination in the first column. The number of the column which contains that combination is the answer. If all the combinations are different, the answer is “5”. English Version 1 2 3 4 5
Q.25. S. R. BHAT S. R. BHAT S. R. BHATT S. R. BHAT S. R. BHAT None
36, Bora Street 63, Bora Street 36, Bora Street 36, Bora Street 36, Bora Street
Bombay–400096 Bombay–400096 Bombay–400096 Bombay–400069 Bombay–400096

Q.26. S. Narayanan S. Narayan S. Narayanan S. Narayanan S. Naraianan None
Amar Apt. 62 Amar Apt. 62 Amar Apt. 62 Amar Apt. 66 Amar Apt. 62
Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011 Bombay–400011

Q.27. Tewarson S. O. Tewarsons S. O. Tewarson S. O. Tewarson S. O. Tewarson S. O. None
B-314 Mahanga B-314 Mahanga B-413 Mahanga B-314 Mahanga B-314 Mahanga
Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 843759 Tel. No. 834759

In the second type of questions, some items of family expenditure are given. The item in each questions is to be classified into one of the following five. Heads of expenditure : (1) Education (2) Food (3) Health (4) Travel (5) Miscellaneous. The number preceding the Head of expenditure 1 or 2 or 3 or 4 or 5, as the case may be, is the answer.
Sample Question :
Q.28. Purchase of Rice Since this item falls under the Head of expenditure “Food” the answer is “2”. In the third type of questions, five words or names are given. You have to find out which word or name will be in the middle after the words or names are rearranged in alphabetical order.
TEST IV : ENGLISH LANGUAGE - This is a test to see how well you ‘know’ English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on grammar, vocabulary, sentence completion, synonyms, antonyms, comprehension of a passage, etc. Study and answer the sample questions given below. Please remember, in the test there may be questions of several other types also.
Direction : Pick out the most appropriate word from amongst the words given below each sentence to complete it meaningfully.
Q.30. He quickly glanced ………………………… the book to find what it said about the Indian economy.
(1) at (2) through (3) in (4) to (5) over
The correct answer is “through” which is answer No. 2.

Q.31. The counsel urged the court to ……………………… down the obnoxious law.
(1) enact (2) enforce (3) cancel (4) strike (5) declare

Q.32. The local official ……………………… the Minister of the situation.
(1) explained (2) warned (3) apprised (4) told (5) intimated
Directions : Read each sentence given below to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)

Q.33. I am twenty / two years old / when I first / joined the bank. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
The error is in (1). Therefore the answer is ‘1’.

Q.34. To the Hindus / the Ganga is / holier than / any other river. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
In this question, there is no error; Hence the right answer to this question is ‘5’. Now attempt the following question.

Q.35. Of all the teachers / in our school / our class teacher / were very strict. No error
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
Directions : In each of the following questions select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in meaning to the word given in capitals.

Q.36. CENTENARY
(1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man (4) hundred runs (5) hundredth anniversary

Q.37. TRIUMPH
(1) conquer (2) smash (3) earn (4) brave (5) capture

Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.38. LIVELY (1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron
Q.39. INADVERTENT (1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentionalIn addition to the above questions, there will be a passage in English for comprehension. You will be asked questions based on the passage. There may be some other types of questions also. There will be a single answersheet for all the objective tests.

Thursday, October 14, 2010

RBI Executive Interns Model Paper


REASONING

1. How many such pairs of letters
are there in the word TRIBUNAL
each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in
the English alphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer.E
2. In a certain code DOWN is
written as ’5 @ 9 #’ and NAME is
written as ’# 6%3′. How is
MODE written in that code ?
(A) %653 (B) %@63
(C) %5@3 (D) %@53
(E) None of these
Answer.D
3. How many meaningful English
words can be formed with the
letters LGEU using each letter
only once in each word ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer.C
4. If ’R’ denotes ’—”, ’Q” denotes ’><’,
’W’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘A’ denotes
’+’, then-
4 2W7R8A6Q4:?
(A) » 22 (B) — 168
(C) 22 (D) 28
(E) None of these
Answer.C
Answer.
5 ln a certain code THRIVES is
written as SIUHRDU. How is
SOULFUL written in that code ?
(A) VPTKKTE
(B) VPTKETK
(C) TPVKKTE
(D) TNRKMVG
(E) None of these
Answer.A
6. The positions of how many digits
in the number 59164823 will
remain unchanged after the digits
are rearranged in descending
order within the number ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
Answer.C
7. Mohan walked 30 metres towards
South, took a left turn and
walked 15 metres. He then took a
right turn and walked 20 metres.
He again took a right turn and
walked 15 metres, I-low far is he
from the starting point ?
(A) 95 metre
(B) 50 metre
(C) 70 metre
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
Answer.B
8. What should come next in the
following letter series ?
PQRSTABCDEPQRSAB
CDEPQRSABCDPQ
(A) R (B) T
(C) A (D) B
(E) None of these
Answer.A
9. In a certain code language, ’how
can you go”is written as ’ja da ka
pa’; ‘can you come here’ is
written as ’na ka sa ja” and ‘come
and go’ is written as ’ra pa sa’.
How is ’here’ written in that
code language ?
(A) ja
(B) na
(C) pa
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer.B
10, What should come next in the
following letter series based on
English alphabet ?
CEA, IKG, OQM, 7
(A) STW (B) WUS
(C) SWU (D) UWS
(E) None of these
.
Answer.D
Directioris—(Q. 11—15) ln each of
the questions below are given four
statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, lll and IV. You
have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts.
Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions
logically follows from the given
statements disregarding commonly
known facts.
Il. Statements :
Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
Conclusions :
I. Some dresses are cars.
H. Some nets are trains.
HI. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.
(A) Only I and III follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and IV follow
(D) Only II, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Answer.B
12. Statements :
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
Conclusions :
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) Only I, II and III follow
(D) Only II, IH and IV follow
(E) None of these
Answer.E
I3. Statements :
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks. {
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
Conclusions :
I. Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
IH. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites.
(A) Only I and III follow
(B) Only I, H and III follow
(C) Only III and IV follow
(D) Only H, III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Answer.C
I4. Slzlzmznls :
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
:
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings
Il]. No window is stone
IV. Some rings are stones.
(A) Onlyl follows
(B) Only H follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either I or HI follows
(E) Only either I or III and II
Follow
Answer.E
15. Statements:
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
Cnndusicns :
I. Some buses are tyres.
H. Some wheels are clocks.
IH. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only IH follows
(E) Only IV follows
Answer.A
Directi0ns—(Q. 16-20) Study the
following information carefully and
answer the questions given below 1
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are
sitting around a circle facing the
centre. F is fourth to the right of A
who is third to the right of Bl K is
fourth to the left of B and third to the
right of D. C is third to the right of I-I.
E is second to the left of G.
16 Who is to the immediate right of
F ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) E
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer.B
17. Who is third to the right of K ?
(A) F
(B) E
(C) G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Answer.C
18. What is E’s position with respect
to B ?
(A) Second to the left
(B) Third to the right
(C) Fourth to the right
(D) Third to the left
(E) Fifth to the right
Answer.D
19. Who is fourth to the left of G
(A) C (B) A
(C) D (D) K
(E) Data inadequate
Answer.A
20. In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting
between the first and the second
persons ?
(A) GFB (B) BGH
(C) ADC (D) KEC
(E) EGF
Answer.E
Dire¢ii¤nL(Ql 21—25) In the
following questions, the symbols ES,
@, ©, % and *are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
’P © Q’ means ’P is not smaller than
’P % Q’ means ’P is neither smaller
than nor equal to Q’
’P ir Q’means ’P is neither greater
than nor equal to Q’
’l” B Q’ means ’P is not greater than
’P @ Q’ means ’P is neither greater
than nor smaller than Q’
Now in each of the following
questions assuming the given state~
ments to be true, find which of the
three conclusions I, ll, III and IV
given below them is/ are definitely
true and give your answer accord-
ingly, I, I
21. :
D?T,T@R,R©M,M%K
:
I. R @ D
Il. R % D
III. K * T
IV. M ? T
(A) Only eitherl or II is true
(B) Only IH and IV are true
(C) Only either I or II and III are
true
(D) Only either I 0r II and IV are
true
(E) Only either I 0r II and III
and IV are true
Answer.E
22. ;I@F,F?N,N%H,H©G
:
I. G * N
II. N © J
III. F * J
IV. J ? G
(A) Onlyl and II are true
(B) Only I, H and HI are uue
(C) Only II, HI and l`V are true
(D) All I, II, III and IV are true
(E) None cf these
Answer.E
23, Statements :R*K,K%D,D@V,V?M
I. R * D
II. V * R
III. D @ M
IV. M % D
(A) None is true
(B) Only III is hue
(C) Only IV is true
(D) Only either III 0r IV is true
(E) Only either III or IV and I]
are hrue
Answer.D
24. B©T,T•*R,R%F,F@K
(bndminns :
I. B % R
II. F* T
IH. R % K
IV. K * T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only IV is true
Answer.D
25, :F%N,N©W,W?Y,Y*T
Cnndusiam :
I. F % W
H. T % N
III. N % Y
IV. T % W
(A) Only I and III are true
(B) Only I and IV are true
(C) Only II and III are true
(D) Only I, Hand IV are true
(E) None of these
Answer.B
Directions-(Q. 26-30) In mak-
ing decisions about important ques-
tions, it is desirable to be able to
distinguish between ’strong’ argu-
ments and ’weak’ arguments. ’Strong’
arguments are those which are both
important and directly related to the
question. ’Weak’ arguments are those
which are ot minor importance and
also may not be directly related to me
question or may be related to a trivial
aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed
by three arguments numbered (I), (II)
and (III). You have to decide which of
the arguments is a ’strong’ argument
and which is a ’weak’ argument.
26. Statement : Should there be
complete ban on setting up of
thermal power plants in India ?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this is the only way to
arrest further addition to
environmental pollution.
II. No, there is a huge shortage
of electricity in most parts of
the country and hence gene-
ration of electricity needs to
be augmented.
III. No, many developed coun-
tries continue to set up
thermal power plants in
their countries.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only II is strong
(D) Only III is strong
(E) Only either I or II is strong
Answer.C
27. Statement : Should road repair
work in big cities be carried out
only late at night ?
Arguments:
I. No, this way the work will
never get completed.
II. No, there will be unneces-
sary use of electricity.
HI. Yes, the commuters will face
lot of problems due to repair
work during the day.
(A) None is strong
(B) Only I is strong
(C) Only III is strong
(D) Only Hand lll are strong
(E) Only I and H are strong
Answer.D
28. Statement : Should all the
deemed universities be derecog-
nized and attached to any of the
central or state universities in
India ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, many of these deemed
universities do not conform
to the required standards ot
a full-fledged university and
hence the level of education
is compromised.
II. No, these deemed univer-
sities have been able to
introduce irmovative courses
suitable to the requirement
of various industries as they
are free from strict Govt.
controls.
Ill. Yes, many such universities
are basically money spin-
ning activites and education
takes a backseat in these
institutions.
(A) Only I and Hare strong
(B) Only II and III are strong
(C) Onlyl and III are strong
(D) All L II and III are strong
(E) None of these
Answer.B
29. Statement : Should there be a cap
on drawing groundwater for
irrigation purposes in India ?
Arguments:
I. No, irrigation is of prime
importance for food produc-
tion in India and it is heavily
dependent on groundwater
in many parts of the coun-
try.
Il. Yes, water tables have gone
down to alarmingly low
levels in some parts of the
country where irrigation is
primarily dependent on
groundwater, which may
lead to serious environ-
mental consequences.
IH. Yes, India just cannot afford
to draw groundwater any
further as the international
agencies have cautioned
India against it.
(A) Only I and II are strong
(B) Only II and III are strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) All I, II and III are strong
(E) None of these
Answer.B
30. Statement : Should there be a
restriction on the construction of
high rise buildings in big cities in
India ?
Arguments:
I. No, big cities in India do not
have adequate open land
plots to accommodate the
growing population,
II. Yes, only the builders and
developers benefit from the
construction of high rise
buildings.
IH. Yes, the Govt. should first
provide adequate infrast—
ructural facilities to existing
buildings before allowing
the construction of new high
rise buildings,
(A) Only II is strong
(B) Only III is strong
(C) Only I and III are strong
(D) Only I is strong
(E) None of these
Answer.C
Directions—(Q. 31-35) In each
question below is given a statement
followed by three assumptions I, II
and III. An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted. You
have to consider the statement and
the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is
implicit in the statement.
31. Statement : The Govt. has
decided to auction construction
of highways to private entities in
several blocks across the country
on build—operate—transfer basis.
Which of the following assump—
tion(s) is/are implicit in the
above statement ?
I. An adequate number of
private entities may not res-
pond to the Governrrient’s
auction notification.
II. Many private entities in the
country are capable of cons-
tructing highways within
reasonable time.
III. The Govt/s proposal of
build-operate-transter may
financially benefit the
private entities.
(A) Only I and H are implicit
(B) Only II and III are implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only I and III are implicit
(E) None of these
Answer.B
32. Statement z Govt. has urged all
the citizens to use electronic
media for carrying out their daily
activities, whenever possible,
instead of using paper as the
manufacture of paper requires
the cutting down of a large
number of trees causing severe
damage to the ecosystem.
Which of the following assump-
tion(s) is/are implicit in the
above statement ?
I. Most people may be capable
of using electronic media to
carry out various routines.
II. Most people may have
access to electronic media
for carrying out their daily
routine activites.
III. People at large may reject
the Govt/s appeal and
continue using paper as
before.
(A) Onlylis implicit
(B) Only II is implicit
(C) Only I and II are implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) None of these
Answer.C
33. Statement : The apex body
controlling universities in the
country has decided to revise the
syllabus of all the technical
courses to make them focussed
towards the present needs of
the industry thereby making
the technical graduates more
employable than they are at
present.
I/Vhich of the following assump-
tion(s) is / are implicit in the
above statement ?
I. Technical colleges affiliated
to different universities may
not welcome the apex body’s
decision and may continue
with the same syllabus as at
present.
II. The industry may welcome
i the decision of the apex body
_ and scale up their hiring
from these colleges.
III. The Govt. may not allow the
apex body to implement its
decision in all the colleges as
it may lead to chaos.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Onlylis implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and II are implicit
Answer.C
34. Statement 1 Police authority
cordoned oft the entire locality
for the entire day and stopped all
vehicular movement for the visit
of a top functionary of the
government in view of the threat
perception and advised all die
residents in the area to limit their
movement outside their dwel-
lings,
Which of the following assump-
tion(s) is/are implicit in the
above statement 7
I, Police personnel may not be
able to control the vehicular
movement in the locality
and may seek help from the
umed forces.
II, People living in the locality
may move out of their
houses for the day to avoid
inconvenience.
III.- The Govt. functionary may
request the police authority
to lift the ban on movement
of residents of the locality
outside their dwellings,
(A) None is implicit
(B) Only l is implicit
(C) Only II is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only II and III are implicit
Answer.C
35. Statement : The airlines have
requested all their bonafide
passengers to check the status of
flight operations before leaving
their homes as heavy fog is
causing immense problems to
normal flight operations.
Which of the following assump-
tion(s) is/are implicit in the
above statement ?
I. The majority of the air
passengers may check the
flight status before starting
their journey to the airport.
H. The Govt. may take serious
objection to the notice issued
by the airline company.
HI. Majority of the passengers
may cancel their tickets and
postpone their journey till
the situation becomes
normal.
(A) None is implicit
(B) Onlylis implicit
(C) Only H is implicit
(D) Only III is implicit
(E) Only I and HI are implicit
Answer.E
Directi0ns—(Q. 36—40) Below is
given a passage followed by several
possible inferences which can be
drawn from the facts stated in the
passage. You have to examine each
inference separately in the context of
the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity. Give
answers-
(A) if the inference is ’definitely
true’, {,2., it properly follows
from the statement of facts
given.
(B) if the inference is ’probably
true’ though not ’definitely
true’ in the light of the facts
given.
(C) If the ’data are inadequate’,
i,e., from the facts given you
cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true
or false.
(D) lf the inference is ’probably
false’, though not ’definltely
false’ in the light of the facts
given.
(E) If the inference is ’definitely
false’, i.e., it cannot possibly
be drawn from the facts
given or it contradicts the
given facts.
The deterioration in the overall
asset quality of banl
Performing Assets (NPAS) are
reportedly 27% higher at the end of
December 2009 than at the end of
December 2008-is not surprising.
Any slowdown in growth is bound to
trigger a rise in NPAs as more and
more companies default on loan
repayments. The effect would be
pronounced when the slowdown
coincides with a severe global
recession. But for the restructuring of
loans permitted by the Central Bank
on fairly generous terms, NPAS
would have been still higher. Prudent
banks that took care while sanction-
ing loans and then monitored the
post-sanction disbursement diligently
should be able to weather the crisis.
But it is one thing to have NPAs rise
because of a cyclical downturn, it is
quite another to have NPAs would
have been still higher. Prudent banks
that took care while sanctioning loans
and then monitored the post-sanction
disbursement diligently should be
able to weather the crisis. But it is one
thing to have NPAs rise because of
policy errors that are entirely within
the realm of policymakers. And this
is what we need to guard against.
Excessively low interest rates skew
the risk—reward equation by making
projects that are actually not viable,
appear viableftill interest rates
reverse and the same projects cease to
be viable E lt is now well established
that long periods of unduly low
interest rates encourage banks to take
more risks. A low interest rate regime
driven by an easy money policy
rather than macroeconomic funda-
mentals leads to excessive expansion
of credit. It incentivizes banks to take
on more risk in search of higher
returns and to misprice risk.
36. Low interest rate on credit
reduces the capacity to absorb
various unaccounted risk factors.
Answer.C
37. Bank’s Nl’As occur only due to
economic factors.
Answer.B
38. The Central Bank always allows
banks to restructure their loans
in the event of rise in NPAs.
Answer.A
39. Lower interest rate cycle projects
commercially unviable projects
as viable.
Answer.A
40. Higher NPAs indicate shortcom-
ings in disbursement and follow-
up of credit given by banks.
Directions ’(Q. 41-45) Study the
following information carefully and
answer the questions given below :
Following are the condiuons for
selecting Senior Manager-General
Banking in a bank ;
The Camdidtate must ;.
(i) have secured at least 60 per
cent marks in Std. XH.
(ii) have secured at least 55 per
cent marks in Graduation in
any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 60 per
cent marks in post-graduate
degree / diploma in Manage•
ment / Economics / Statistics.
(iv) be at least 25 years and not
be more than 35 years as on
1.3.2010.
(v) have post qualification work
experience of at least 2 years
as General Banking Officer
in a bank.
(vi) have secured at least 50 per
cent marks in written exami—
nation.
(vii) have secured at least 40 per
cent marks in Personal
Interview.
ln the case of a candidate who
satisfies all the above conditions
except-
(a) at (iii) above, but has secured
at least 60 per cent marks in
CA or ICWA, the case is to
be referred to VP»Recruit-
ment.
(b) at (vii) above, but have
secured at least 65 per cent
marks in the written exami-
nation and at least 35 per
cent marks in the personal
interview, the case is to be
referred to President-Recruit
ment.
In each question below are given
details of one candidate. You have to
take one of the following courses of
actions based on the information
provided and the conditions and sub-
conditions given above and mark the
number of that course of action as
your answer, You are not to assume
anything other than the information
provided in each question. All these
cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010.
Mark answers-
(A) If the data provided are
inadequate to take a decision.
(B) lf the case is to be referred to
VP-Recruitment,
(C) If the case is to be referred to
President•Recruitment.
(D) If the candidate is to be
selected
(E) If the candidate is not to be
selected.
Answer.D
41. Shoan Majhi has secured 65 per
cent marks in B.Sc. and 70 per
cent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He
has been working in a bank as
generalist officer for the past
three years after completing his
post-graduation. He has secured
55 per cent marks in the written
examination and 50 per cent
marks in the personal interview.
He was born on 8th ]uly 1982.
Answer.A
42. Neeta ]aiswal was born on 2nd
]u.ne 1980. She has been working
in a bank as generalist officer
for the past three years after
completing her post-graduate
degree in Economics with 60 per
cent marks. She has secured 68
per cent marks in HSC and 58
per cent marks in B.Com. She has
also secured 50 per cent marks in
both the wirtten examination and
personal interview.
Answer.D
43. Arindam Ghosh has been work-
ing in a bank as generalist officer
for the past four years after
completing his post~graduate
diploma in management with 60
per cent marks. He has secured
50 per cent marks in the written
examination and 40 per cent
marks in the personal interview.
He has also secured 70 per cent
marks in Std. XII. He was born
on 25th February, 1975.
Answer.E
44. Kesav Vora was born on 8th
November 1978. He has secured
65 per cent marks in Std. XII and
60 per cent marks in graduation.
He has secured 58 per cent marks
in M.A. Economics and 60 per
cent marks in ICWA. He has
been working in a bank as
generalist officer for the past two
years after completing his
education. He has also secured
50 per cent marks in the written
examination and 45 per cent
marks in personal interview.
Answer.B
45. Neha Salve has been working in
a bank as generalist officer for
the past four years after complet-
ing her postgraduate degree in
Economics with 60 per cent
marks. She has secured 60 per
cent marks in both graduation
and Std. XII. She was born on
24th August, 1979. She has
secured 70 per cent marks in the
written examination and 38 per
cent marks in the personal inter-
view..1
Answer.C