Wednesday, September 29, 2010

SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS Ist & 2nd SHIFT (01-03-2009)


FOR SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS CLERKS EXAM SOLVED PAPERS Ist &2nd SHIFT (01-03-2009) CLICK HERE

IDBI PREVIOUS SOLVED PAPER


Quantitative aptitude

Qno.1-4. In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
1. 14 13 22 55 212 1035
(1) 55 (2) 13 (3) 212 (4) 22 (5) None of these
2. 217 224 213 226 210 228
(1) 213 (2) 226 (3) 210 (4) 228 (5) None of these
3. 153 495 712 837 901 928
(1) 712 (2) 837 (3) 901 (4) 928 (5) None of these
4. 488 245 124 64 35 20.25
(1) 124 (2) 64 (3) 245 (4) 35 (5) None of these
5. A 250 metres long train crosses a platform in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 25 metres/second
(2) 20 metres/second
(3) 22 metres/second
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
6. The compound interest earned on an amount of Rs 15,000 at the end of 3 years is Rs 3895.68. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
(1) 8 (2) 6.5 (3) 5 (4) 12 (5) None of these
7. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. 20 women take 16 days to complete the same piece of work. 12 men and 10 women work together for 6 days. How many
more days would 10 women alone require to complete the remaining piece of work?
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 16 (5) None of these
8. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘FORMULATE’ be arranged?
(1) 81,000 (2) 40,320 (3) 3,62,880 (4) 1,53,420 (5) None of these
9. The frogs in a pond increase by 10% at the end of every year. If at the start of the year 2004, there were 2,14,000 frogs in the pond, then what would be the number of frogs
in the pond by the end of the year 2006?
(1) 2,35,400 (2) 2,68,940 (3) 2,64,328 (4) 2,98,644 (5) None of these
Qno.10-14. In each of these questions, two equations are given. You have to solve these equations and find out the values of x and y and Give answer If
(1) x
(2) x>y
(3) x ≤y
(4) x ≥y
(5) x=y or if the relationship cannot be established
10. i. 12×2 = 6x
ii. y + x2 = 0.45
11. i. x 6.25
ii. y2 = 6.25
12. i. 20×2 – 33x + 7 = 0
ii. y 0.0625
13. i. 6×2 + 28x + 16 = 0
ii. 14y2 + 15y + 4 = 0
14. i. 4x + 3y = 16
ii. 2x + 4y = 13

15. On children’s day sweets were to be equally distributed amongst 540 children. But on that particular day, 120 children were absent. Thus, each child got 4 sweets extra. How many sweets was each child originally supposed to get?
(1) 18 (2) 25 (3) 14 (4) 20 (5) None of these
16. A boat covers a distance of 24 kms in 10 hours downstream. To cover the same distance upstream, the boat takes two hours longer. What is the speed of the boat in still
waters?
(1) 2 km/hr (2) 2.8 km/hr (3) 4 km/hr (4) 4.2 km/hr (5) None of these
17. The circumference of a circle is equal to the perimeter of a square whose area is 121 sq cms. What is the area of the circle?
(1) 44 sq cms (2) 154 sq cms (3) 121 sq cms (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
18. Sonia started a business by investing Rs 60,000. Six months later Vivek joined her by investing Rs 1,40,000. After one year Kirti joined them by investing Rs 1,20,000. At the
end of two years from the commencement of the business, 57 AUGUST 2006 THE COMPETITION MASTER O B J E C T I V E -T Y P E Q U E S T I O N S
they earn a profit of Rs 4,50,000. What is Vivek’s share in the profit?
(1) Rs 1,40,000 (2) Rs 1,98,500 (3) Rs 2,15,000 (4) Rs 2,10,000 (5) None of these
19. An urn contains 4 green and 7 blue marbles. If three marbles are picked at random, what is the probability that only two of them are blue?
(1)4955 (2)711 (3)2855 (4)1128 (5) None of these

Qno.20-24. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
20. 3 5 4 1 1 1 –2 ? 4 8 5 2
(1)7240 (2)7140 (3)3240 (4)3140 (5) None of these
21. 14 × 18.6 ÷ 12 + 19.3 = ?
(1) 41 (2) 33.5 (3) 291.9 (4) 8.32 (5) None of these
22. 84.2 × 642.1 × 78.4 × 563.5 = 56?
(1) 18.2 (2) 9.8 (3) 11.9 (4) 12.6 (5) None of these
23. (4)2 + (3)2 = ?
(1) 25 (2) 5 (3) 125 (4) 425 (5) None of these
24. 53% of 120 + 25% of 862 = ?% of 500
(1) 42.50 (2) 55.82 (3) 63.68 (4) 38.89 (5) None of these
Qno.25-29. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:
(1) if the data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement
II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
(5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
25. What is the area of the square?
I. Measure of the diagonal of the square is 80 cms.
II. The perimeter of the square is equal to the circumference of a circle.
26. What is Asha’s present salary?
I. Her salary increases every year by 15 per cent.
II. She joined the organization seven years ago.
27. What is the rate of interest p.c.p.a.?
I. The compound interest acurred on an amount of Rs 1,500 at the end of 2 years is Rs 660.
II. An amount doubles itself in 5 years with simple interest.
28. What is the total staff strength of the organization?
I. 75% of the staff consists of male employees.
II. The ratio of female to male employees in the organization is 1 : 3 respectively.
29. What is the two digit number?
I. The sum of the two digits of the number is 8.
II. The number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is lesser than the original number by 18.

 Answers:


1. (1)  2. (3) 3. (5) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (5) 10. (4)
11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (3) 16. (5) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4)
21. (1) 22. (3) 23. (5) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (4) 29. (5)

ICICI Bank Model Paper

Section : Aptitude

31. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head.  At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.
32. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
33. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.
34. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?
Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.
35. For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is $0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is $1.00 for the vehicle and driver and $0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.
1. . Which is the shortest route from B to C
(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C (b) The bridge (c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel (e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway
Ans. (a)
2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the
(a) tunnel (b) bridge (c) bridge or tunnel (d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway
Ans. (a)
3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel ?
(a) Whether his wife goes with him (b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving $0.25 in tolls (e)price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge
Ans. (a)
4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be: I. Traffic and road conditions II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of one’s homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities
IV. Desire to save $0.25
(a) I only (b) II only (c) II and III only (d) III and IV only (e) I and II only
Ans. (a)
ICICI Bank Aptitude Test Paper 2 Question No. 36 to 39
36. The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10, D is 3 less than A, B is the middle term
F is as much less than B as C is greater than D, G is greater than F,
1. The fifth integer is
(a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) F
Ans. (a)
2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Ans. (a)
3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14 (e) 16
Ans. (a)
4. A – F = ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) Cannot be determined
Ans. (a)
5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) Cannot be determined
Ans. (a)
6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6
Ans. (a)
37. 1. All G’s are H’s
2. All G’s are J’s or K’s
3. All J’s and K’s are G’s
4. All L’s are K’s
5. All N’s are M’s
6. No M’s are G’s
1. If no P’s are K’s, which of the following must be true?
(a) All P’s are J’s (b) No P is a G (c) No P is an H (d) If any P is an H it is a G (e) If any P is a G it is a J
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?
(a) No M’s are H’s (b) No M’s that are not N’s are H’s (c) No H’s are M’s (d) Some M’s are H’s (e) All M’s are H’s
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?
(a) All H’s are G’s (b) All H’s that are not G’s are M’s (c) Some H’s are both M’s and G’s (d) No M’s are H’s (e) All M’s are H’s
Ans. (a)
4. The statement “No L’s are J’s” is
I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement “No J’s are K’s”
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II and III only (e) Neither I, II nor III
Ans. (a)
38. In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.
1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true
(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.
Ans. (a)
2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime minister’s deputies are composed
I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II or III but not both (d) I and II or I and III (e) None of these
Ans. (a)
3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated:
(a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.
Ans. (a)
4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired.
(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members
c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.
Ans. (a)
39. In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of $500 per year, the president of the university said “There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of $300 last year and $200 the year before”. If the president’s statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given:
I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.
(a) I only (b) II only (c) I or II but not both (d) I, II and III (e) None
Ans. (a)
40. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers–A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who don’t function well together. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office
I. Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and shouldn’t go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldn’t be a team
1. .If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.
A.ABDEH B.ABDGH C.ABEFH D.ABEGH
Ans.B
2. If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4
Ans.A
3. If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C
A.B B.D C.F D.G
Ans.B
4. Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office
A.B B.D C.E D.G
Ans.A
5. If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true
I.C cannot go II.A cannot go III.H must also go
A.I only B.II only C.I and II only D.I and III only
Ans.D
41. After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5–A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure
I.The interviews will be held once a week
II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additonal interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview.
1. .At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.Which of the follwing combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.
A.BCD B.CDE C.ABE D.ABC
Ans.B
2. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks
A.ABC;BDE B.ABD;ABE C.ADE;ABC D.BDE;ACD
Ans.C
3. If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2 candidates may be asked to appear with D?
I. A II B III.C IV.E
A.I and II B.I and III only C.II and III only D.III and IV only
Ans.D
4. Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee
I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice
A.I only B.II only C.III only D.Both I and II
Ans.A
42. A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2 and 3
When it snows , morning service on B is delayedWhen it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line,
but not both When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the 3 line but not both.When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line is delayed.
1. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree farenheit, it snows all day. On how many lines will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Ans. D
2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees farenheit it begins to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number of lines on which service will be affected?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
Ans. C
3. On which of the following occasions would service be on the greatest number of lines disrupted.
(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit
Ans. B
43. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden
1. A brown female could have had
I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown
(A) I only (B) III only (C) I, II and III (D) I and II only
Ans. D
2. A male born into the brown group may have
(A) An uncle in either group (B) A brown daughter (C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group
Ans. A
3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated.
(A) A brown male marrying his father’s sister
(B) A red female marrying her mother’s brother
(C) A widower marrying his wife’s sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughter’s ex-husband
Ans. B
4. . If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had upon marrying which of the following would be permissible ( Assume that no previous marriage occurred)
(A) A woman marrying her dead sister’s husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughter’s ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brother’s daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mother’s brother who is a widower.
Ans. D
5. I. All G’s are H’s
II. All G’s are J’s or K’s
III All J’s and K’s are G’s
IV All L’s are K’s
V All N’s are M’s
VI No M’s are G’s
44. There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step
Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc.
1. If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true?
(a) Mr. B is on the second step (b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step (d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.
Ans: (d)
2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant
(a) step 1 (b) step 2 (c) step 4 (d) step 5 (e) step 6
Ans: (a)
3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?
(a) 2&e only (b) 3&5 only (c) 3&4 only (d) 4&5 only (e) 2&4 only
Ans: (c)
4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D , A must be on step
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (e) 6
Ans: (c)
5. Which of the following is false
i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step.
(a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) both i and iii
Ans: (c)
45. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race. The outcome is as follows.
i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D
1. Who stood fifth in the race ?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
Ans: (e)
2. . How many swimmers seperate A and F ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) cannot be determined
Ans: (d)
3. The swimmer between C & E is
(a) none (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) A
Ans: (a)
4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (e) 5
Ans: (b)
46. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows.
i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black, or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney
1. Which of the following is true ?
(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs
Ans: (c)
2. Which must be false ?
(a) House A has a yellow roof (b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney (d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof.
Ans: (b)
3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.
(a) House E has a white chimney (b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney (d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney
Ans: (a)
4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house
I. A red roof 7 a black chimney II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney
(a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I & II only (e) I&II&III
Ans: (e)
47. Find x+2y
(i). x+y=10 (ii). 2x+4y=20
Ans: (b)
48. Is angle BAC is a right angle
(i) AB=2BC (2) BC=1.5AC
Ans: (e)
49. Is x greater than y
(i) x=2k (ii) k=2y
Ans: (e)

Tuesday, September 28, 2010

ICICI Bank PO EXAM PREVIOUS PAPER


VERBAL COMPREHENSION
Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.

Passage
On clear moonless evenings when it is completely dark, you can sometimes see a faint glow from the horizon. It is called the zodiacal light as it runs along the zodiac, the constellation through which the planets appear to travel. This glow is sunlight, reflected off dust particles in the solar system it is brightest near the sun, so it is best visible after sunset or before dawn, when the sun is just far enough below the horizon to leave the sky completely dark.

1. According to this passage the zodiac is a________
a. Collection of sun signs
b. Constellation
c. Star
d. Planet

2. The zodiacal light can be seen only on_____
a. Moonless nights
b. Starry Nights
c. Moonless evenings
d. Alternate days

Directions: Choose the best word from the given options to complete the sentence.
1. Passing gravy through a ________removes lumps.
a. Mixture
b. Sieve
c. Tap
d. Cap

2. The politician’s poor behaviour was overlooked because of his
________.
a. Selfishness
b. Reluctance
c. Resistance
d. Charisma

3. The latest novel in the series opened with a _________ of the previous books.
a. Syntax
b. Signage
c. Symphony
d. Synopsis

4. Salt is a __________ ingredient in the preparation of any type of food.
a. Indicative
b. Cheerful
c. Outstanding
d. Vital

NUMERICAL COMPREHENSION
Directions: Each of the questions below is followed by two statements, labeled (1) and (2), in which certain data are given. In these questions you do not actually have to compute an answer, but rather you have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions. Using the data given in the statements plus your knowledge of mathematics and everyday facts (such as the number of days in a month), you are to blacken the box on the answer sheet under:
A. If statements (1) ALONE is sufficient but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
B. If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient but statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question asked.
C. If BOTH statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question asked, but NIETHER statement ALONE is sufficient.
D. If EACH statement is sufficient by itself to answer the question asked.
E. If statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question asked and additional data specific to the problem are needed.

1. How much did Seema weigh before she started dieting?
1. She now weighs 63 kilos
2. Seema lost 9 kilos

2. If x and y are numbers, which weighs more: x blue marbles or y red marbles?
1. x = 5 y
2. Red marbles weigh 1 gram each

3. Are there more than 200 pages in the book?
1. John reads at 7 pages an hour
2. There are 500 pictures in the book with at least one picture per page

Directions: read the problem statements give below and choose the answer that best fits as a solution.
1) A - B invested RS 2000 & RS 5000. So if there is a profit of RS 28000 what is A’s share if they share the profits in the ratio 2:5?
a) 4000
b) 5000
c) 8000
d) 7000

2) If apples are bought at 11 for RS 10 & sold at 10 for RS 11, how much will be the gain %?
a) 5%
b) 4%
c) 3%
d) 2%

3) Viral can do a piece of work in 10 days & Raja in 15days. If both of them work together how long will it take to finish the work?
a) 6days
b) 5days
c) 7days
d) 8days

Directions: Refer to the data give in the table below and answer the questions that follow.
Performance

 AverageGoodExcellentTotal
Male16221048
Female248032
Total40301080

1. What proportion of good students are male?
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 4%
d. 5%

2. Among average students, what is the ratio of male to female?
a. 2:3
b. 3:2
c. 2:5
d. 3:4

3. Among which group (male/ female) is the number of good students exactly one third of the number of average students?
a. Male
b. Female
c. Neither
d. Both

LOGICAL REASONING
Directions: There are a series of symbols below that represent a certain action. Each question consists of two or more figures in a column. Work down the column, starting with the top figure and applying the action as represented by the symbol against it. You must then choose from the five possible answers the column that results from carrying out the actions as required on the figures.
Turn the figure from left to right Turn the figure upside down Delete the figure in the box Exchange this figure with the immediately previous figure Fill colour in the figure 1. 2. 3.

Directions: Choose from the five diagrams marked a, b, c, d and e the one that best illustrates the relationship among three given classes in each of the questions. Each class is depicted as a circle in the figures below.
1. Vanilla, Chocolate, Ice cream
2. Lotus, flowers, orange
3. Doctors, Teachers, Painters
4. Dentists, Veterinarians, Doctors

Directions: Consider the information given and answer the questions that follow.
Suresh is heavier than Anil, but not as heavy as Raju. Anil is heavier than Jayesh. Krishnan is heavier than Suresh, but lighter than Raju. Who among them is the heaviest?
a. Anil
b. Krishnan
c. Suresh
d. Raju
e. Jayesh

Who among them is the lightest?
a. Anil
b. Krishnan
c. Suresh
d. Raju
e. Jayesh


Answer Key:

Reading comprehension
1. b
2. c

Sentence completion
1. b
2. d
3. d
4. d

Numerical: Sufficiency
1. c
2. e
3. b

Numerical: arithmetic
1. c
2. a
3. a

Numerical: Data Interpretation
1. b
2. a
3. b

Logical: Diagrammatic
1. a
2. c
3. d

Logical: Venn diagrams
1. b
2. c
3. d
4. b

Logical: working with data
1. d
2. e

BANK OF INDIA GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)
5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)
6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)
10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 percent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)
12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)
13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)
14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently.
The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)
15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)
16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)
17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)
18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)
24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)
28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)
29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)
32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)
33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)
34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)
36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this
scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
41. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?
a) Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
b) Mani Shankar Aiyyar
c) P.Chidambaram
d) Sushama Swaraj
Ans : a
42. Fernando Lugo’s name was in news recently as he has taken over as the president of
a) Paraguay
b) Sudan
c) Afghanistan
d) Pakistan
Ans : a
43. ISRO has launched successfully ten satellites through PSLV-C9 on -
A. 15th March,2008
B. 30th March,2008
C. 28th April,2008
D. 4th May,2008
Ans : c
44. The newly constituted National Knowledge Commission is headed by
a) C. Rangarajan
b)Prof. R. S. Sharma
c) Sam Pitroda
d) Ms. Girija Vyas
Ans : c
45. India enacted an important event of Indian National Movement celebrating the seventy- fifth
anniversary. Which was it?
a) Quit India Movement
b) Delhi Chalo Movement
c) Civil Disobedience Movement
d) Non – Cooperation Movement
Ans :c
46. Pope Benedict XVI belongs to which country?a) Italy
b) Germany
c) France
d) Poland
Ans : b
47. The media campaign “ The World Is Waiting” is related to which of the following companies?
a) Lufthansa
b) Qatar Airways
c) Indian Airlines
d) British Airways
Ans : d
48. Who among the following has been elected as President of the International Council of
Science Union?
a) E. Sreedharan
b) N. Ram
c) M. G. K. Menon
d) Goverdhan Mehta
Ans : d
49. Which of the following countries launched the smallest combat aircraft in the world?
a) Germany
b) India
c) Russia
d) USA
Ans : b
50. Who among the following British Governor- Generals shifted India’s capital from Calcutta to
Delhi in 1911?
a) Lord Louis Mountbatten
b) Lord Canning
c) Lord Hardinge
d) Warren Hastings
Ans : c
51. “Golden Handshake” is the term associated with
a) Share market
b) Retirement benefits
c) Voluntary retirement benefits
d) SmugglingAns : c
52. Which of the following is the first surface- to- surface missile in India?
a) Prithvi
b) Trishul
c) Agni
d) Naag
Ans : a
53. Which country will be host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?
a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) India
d) Pakistan
Ans : b
54. Mist is caused by
a) Dry ice
b) Ice at low temperature
c) Water vapours at low temperature
d) Carbon- monoxide in solid form
Ans : c
55. Who among the following has been chosen the Miss India Universe for the year 2008 ?
a) Parvathy Omanakuttan
b) Simaran Kaur Mundi
c) Amrita Thapar
d) Tanvi Vyas
Ans : b
56. Who among the following was the author of “Rajtarangini”, commonly regarded as the first genuine history of India written by an Indian?
a) Banbhatta
b) Ravikirti
c) Pushpadanta
d) Kalhana
Ans : d
57. Who among the following advocated Scientific Socialism?
a) Robert Owen
b) Proudhon Pierre Josephc) Karl Marx
d) Saint Simon Henri Claude
Ans : c
58. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deal with the Directive Principles of State Policy?
a) 26 to 41
b) 31 to 56
c) 36 to 51
d) 41 to 66
ANS: c
59) Which one of the following travelers is not associated with the description of the glories of Vijayanagar kingdom?
a) Abdur Razzaq
b) Paes
c) Ibn Batutah
d) Nuniz
Ans : c :
Abdur Razzaq- Deva Raya II
Paes- Krishna Deva Raya
Ibn Batutah- Harihara I
Nuziz- Achyut Deva Raya
60. The Chinese pilgrim Fa – Hien visited India during the reign of
a) Kanishka
b) Chandragupta I
c) Chandragupta II
d) Harshavardhana
Ans : c
61. Which of the following is the economic growth percentage projected in the 11th Five Year Plan draft that was approved by the Planning Commission in November 2007?
a) 8%
b) 9%
c) 9.5%
d) 10%
Ans : b
62. The Indian Navy’s only sailing ship, which returned to Kochi after a 10- month voyage around the globe is,
a) INS Vibhutib) INS Tarangini
c) INS Prabhat
d) INS Viraat
Ans : b
63) Who among the following is the Director General of International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a) Thaksin Shinawatra
b) Liang Guanglie
c) Dominique Strauss Kahn
d) Paul Wolfowitz
Ans : c
64) Who is the author of the book “Super Star India : From Incredible to Unstopable”?
a) Shobha De
b) Hillory Clinton
c) Dalai Lama
d) Imran Khan
Ans : a
65) What does CECA stand for?
a) Community Enabled Cooperative Arrangement
b) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Agreement
c) Comprehensive Ecological Cooperation Arrangement
d) Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
Ans : d
66) John wheeler was associated with -
a) Physics
b) Chemistry
c) Botany
d) History
Ans : a

Marketing and Financial Awareness qUESTIONS


1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name
2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947
3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these
8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI
9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these
10.Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order
12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation
13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same
14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological
15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set
16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.
17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier
18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User
19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer
20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these

FEDERAL BANK Financial Awareness Questions

1. Sunita has two bank accounts, one with HDFC Bank and another with ICICI Bank. She wants to transfer Rs.10,000 from HDFC Bank to ICICI Bank. Which is the safest method to do so?
A. Write a ‘Self’ cheque for Rs.10,000 and withdraw cash from HDFC Bank, go to ICICI Bank and deposit the amount in cash
B. Visit ATM of HDFC Bank, withdraw Rs.10,000 cash, go to ICICI Bank and deposit the amount in cash.
C. Transfer Rs.10,000 by cheque from HDFC Bank account to ICICI Bank
D. All
2. What is known as the plastic money?
A. Plastic tokens used in Financial Games
B. Debit Card
C. Credit Card
D. Debit card and credit card both
3. USD/INR exchange rate has come down from 50 to 48. What does it mean?
A. Indian Rupee has depreciated against US Dollar
B. Indian Rupee has appreciated against US Dollar
C. USD has become stronger
D. INR has become weaker
4. Which is the Central Bank in India?
A. Central Bank of India
B. State Bank of India
C. Indian Bank
D. Reserve Bank of India
5. What is the full form of the term AQB, which is associated with bank account?
A. Audited Quarterly Balance
B. Account with Quarterly Balance
C. Assessed Quarterly Balance
D. Average Quarterly Balance
6. In various types of Loans, the term EMI is used for
A. Equal Minimum Installment
B. Equated Monthly Installment
C. Equated Money Index
D. Easy Money Installment
7. Full form of NAV in Mutual Fund Parlance
A. Net Annual Value
B. Net Actual Value
C. Net Asset Value
D. Non Asset Value
8. In the Life Insurance, which policy is the purest form of insurance
A. Endowment Policy
B. Money Back Policy
C. Whole Life Policy
D. Term Insurance Policy
9. Manoj was allotted shares of the company under employee stock options. He has made some profit by selling shares. His profit is known as
A. Income from share
B. Income from stock options
C. Income from other allowances
D. Income from capital gains
10. What is the full form for NPS
A. New Pension Scheme
B. Non Government Pension Scheme
C. National Public Scheme
D. National Planning Service
11. What is the full form of ITR
A. India Technology and Research
B. Income Tax Return
C. Income Tax Review
D. Income Tax Report
12. If a company issues its shares first time to the public, it is known as IPO. In the same way, when a mutual fund issues units for the first time, what is it called
A. Rights Issue
B. Public Issue
C. New Issue
D. NFO
13. What is the full form of NCD
A. National Capital District
B. Non Cumulative Deposit
C. National Crime Detection
D. Non Convertible Debentures
14. What is meant by Free Credit Period in case of credit card?
A. Period during which credit card holders can purchase anything free of cost
B. Period during which credit card holders can shop without paying any finance charges
C. Period during which credit card holders cannot do any shopping
D. Period during which credit card holders are not eligible for any reward points
15. What is the full form of ATM
A. Any Time Machine
B. Automated Teller Machine
C. Automatic Tea Machine
D. Average Trading Multiple
16. In the compound interest formula = A(1 + r/m)^mn, A is the principal amount, r is the rate of interest, and m is the frequency of compounding. If a bank pays interest compounded quarterly, what is the value of m?
A. 12
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
17. If you want to use your credit card prudently, what you should ideally do?
A. Pay off minimum amount every month
B. Pay only the finance charges
C. Pay the total bill every month in full
D. Roll over the outstanding purchases until you can save enough money to clear all the debt at one time
18. What is the full form of PAN
A. Pension Account Notification
B. Permanent Account Number
C. Primary Account Number
D. Previous Account Number
19. International price of gold is quoted in terms of US Dollar, what is its unit?
A. Per Gram
B. Per Kg
C. Per 10 Grams
D. Per Troy Ounce
20. In India, gold is currently sold at Rs.15,000 per 10 grams. What is the price of 1 Kg of gold?
A. 1.5 Million
B. 1.5 Billion
C. 150 Thousand
D. None of the above
21. Which of the following life insurance plans is the cheapest in terms of premium?
A. Term Insurance Plan
B. Term Insurance Plan with return of Premium
C. Endowment Plan
D. Whole Life Plan
22. Bank ABC pays 8% interest for a three year term deposit with interest compounded annually. Bank XYZ pays 8% interest for a three year term deposit with quarterly compounding of interest. Which bank is more attractive in terms of returns?
A. Bank ABC
B. Bank XYZ
C. None
D. Both
23. A car financing company offers you a loan of 300,000 repayable in three years by way EMI of 10,000. What is the total interest outgo?
A. 290,000
B. 60,000
C. Nil
D. 20,000
24. For the Assessment Year 2010-2011, if an individual falls in the highest tax slab, what will be the rate of income tax for income above 500,000? (Excluding Education Cess)
A. 20%
B. 10%
C. 30%
D. 35%
25. What is the rate of interest on PPF and what is the permissible investment amount per year?
A. 8%, 70,000
B. 8%, No Limit
C. 8%, 60,000
D. 8.5%, 70,000
26. For the Credit Card issuing companies, a credit card is a type of _________ loan
A. Secured Loan
B. Unsecured Loan
C. Mortgage Loan
D. Housing
27. For opening DEMAT Account, _________ is the mandatory requirement
A. Share Trading Account
B. Investment in Shares
C. PAN Card
D. Age Proof
28. What is the rate of service tax + education cess on stock brokerage charges?
A. 10%
B. 10.3%
C. 10.36%%
D. 0.125%
29. What do you require in order to withdraw cash from your bank account through ATM
A. Debit card and PIN
B. ATM card and PIN
C. Credit card and PIN
D. Any one of A or B
30. Ramesh wants to transfer Rs.5000 from Bank A to Bank B by cheque. Ramesh should write a cheque from the chequebook of Bank A and deposit it in Bank B with a cheque deposit slip. In whose name, should Ramesh write the cheque?
A. Yourself
B. Bank A
C. Bank B
D. Ramesh
ANSWERS
Question Number Answer Question Number Answer
1 C 16 C
2 D 17 C
3 B 18 B
4 D 19 D
5 D 20 A
6 B 21 A
7 C 22 B
8 D 23 B
9 D 24 C
10 A 25 A
11 B 26 B
12 D 27 C
13 D 28 B
14 B 29 D
15 B 30 D

FEDERAL BANK Financial Awareness Questions

1. When did Regional Rural Banks start functioning in India?
(A) 1975
(B) 1947
(C) 1956
(D) 1960
2. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Central Pay Commission?
(A) Justice B. N. Srikrishna
(B) Prof. Ravindra Dholakia
(C) J. S. Mathur
(D) Sushma Nath
3. The 11th Five Year Plan is termed as plan for.
(A) India’s Health
(B) Eradication of poverty from India
(C) India’s Education
(D) Development of Rural India
4. Which of the following correctly describes what sub-prime lending is?
(1) Lending to the people with less than ideal credit status.
(2) Lending to the people who are high value customers of the banks.
(3) Lending to those who are not a regular customer
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All
5. The actual return of an investor is reduced sometimes as the prices of the commodities go up all of a sudden. In financial sector this type of phenomenon is known as:
(A) Probability risk
(B) Market risk
(C) Inflation risk
(D) Credit risk
6. Which of the following is the limitation of the ATMs owing to which people are required to visit branches of the bank?
(1) It does not accept deposits.
(2) It has a limited cash disbursement capacity.
(3) Lack of human interface.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
7. The World Development Report 2009 is released by which of the following Organisations?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ADB
(C) IMF
(D) World Bank
8. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE about the Lehman Brothers Holdings Inc. which was in news sometimes back?
(1) The US government provided a US$ 7000 million bailout package to the company.
(2) The company filed for bankruptcy in a court in New York.
(3) The company is now out of financial crisis and is busy in its restructuring so that it can start afresh.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) All
9. The Reserve Bank of India has recently issued guidelines to banks on Pillar 2 of Basel II framework. Pillar 2 deals with which of the following?
(1) Better human resource management
(2) Adequate capital to support risks
(3) Better profitability with minimum number of employees
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) None of these
10.The World Investment Report 2008 was released in September 20This report is published every year by:
(A) Government of India
(B) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(C) Asian Development Bank (ADB)
(D) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
11. As we all know some new initiatives were introduced in the area of Fiscal Management by the government of India. Which of the following acts was passed a few years back to keep a check on the fiscal indiscipline on macroeconomic parameters?
(A) FERA
(B) FRBMA
(C) FEMA
(D) Public Debt Act
12. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing paper notes in India?
(A) Union Government
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Supreme Court
13. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference led to the formation of
(A) IDA
(B) IMF
(C) ADB
(D) IFC
14. Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
15. Euro is the currency of European Union. When did it come into being?
(A) 1999
(B) 1995
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
16. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India
17. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India
18.In India, income tax is levied by
(A) Union Government
(B) State Governments
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) RBI
19. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalized in?
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1950
(D) 1956
20. What is a Bank which has capital and reserves of over Rs. 5 lakhs called?
(A) National Bank
(B) Cooperative Bank
(C) Scheduled Bank
(D) Unscheduled Bank
More Sample Papers

FEDERAL BANK Financial Awareness and Marketing Questions

1. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is better known as
(A) World Bank
(B) Asian Development Bank
(C) IMF
(D) It is known by its name
2. When was the Reserve Bank of India established?
(A) 1935
(B) 1920
(C) 1928
(D) 1947
3. Which is the largest commercial bank in India?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) Bank of India

4. The Bank of Calcutta, Bank of Bombay and Bank of Madras were merged in 1921 to form
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Imperial Bank of India
(C) Bank of India
(D) Union Bank of India

5. Which sister organization of the World Bank helps private activity in developing countries by financing projects with long-term capital in the form of equity and loans?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation


6. Which sister organization of the World Bank provides long term loans at zero interest to the poorest developing countries?
(A) Asian Development Bank
(B) IMF
(C) International Developmental Association
(D) International Finance Corporation
7. Who is known as the ‘Father of Economics’?
(A) Adam Smith
(B) Chanakya
(C) Machiavelli
(D) None of these

8. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce credit card?
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Central Bank of India
(C) Union Bank of India
(D) ICICI
9. What does devaluation of a currency mean?
(A) decrease in the internal value of money
(B) decrease in the external value of money
(C) decrease both in the external and internal values of money
(D) none of these
10.Which of the following is known as plastic money?
(A) bearer cheques
(B) credit cards
(C) demand drafts
(D) gift cheques
11. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of involvement in the context of buyer behaviour?
(A) The length of time involved in the buying process
(B) The potential impact of a product on an individual's self-identity
(C) The number of people involved in the decision-making unit
(D) The complexity of an order
12. Buying decisions generally follow a pattern of overlapping stages. Which of the following best describes the typical stages of the buying process?
(A) Need recognition > Information search > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(B) Need recognition > Evaluation > Information search > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(C) Information search > Need recognition > Evaluation > Decision > Post purchase evaluation
(D) Need recognition > Information search > Decision > Evaluation > Post purchase evaluation
13. Needs differ from wants because:
(A) Wants are a socialized manifestation of underlying needs
(B) Needs are a socialized manifest Needs are historical; wants are about the futuretation of underlying wants
(C) Needs are historical; wants are about the future
(D) Needs and wants are exactly the same
14. Which of the following levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most likely to be associated with consumers' purchase of goods which appeal to their inner sense of peace of mind (e.g. art classes)?
(A) Self-actualization
(B) Love
(C) Security
(D) Physiological
15. An individual is considering buying a new microwave cooker and is faced with the possibility of several models. Which of the following describes the widest range of microwave cookers, which the buyer considers in some form?
(A) The choice set
(B) The awareness set
(C) The total set
(D) The pre-evaluation set
16. A company uses The Coors to endorse its range of snack foods. This endorsement is likely to be particularly effective if the Coors are seen by Large numbers of the company's target market as:
(A) A primary reference group.
(B) A tertiary reference group.
(C) A secondary reference group.
(D) A non-reference group.
17. Which of the following consumer responses is LEAST likely to overcome cognitive dissonance experienced by a consumer who is dissatisfied with their purchase?
(A) Rationalizing to ourselves that a product is actually quite good
(B) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the bad aspects of a product
(C) Seeing the product in a different light so that we emphasize the good aspects of a product
(D) Complaining and returning goods to the supplier
18.Which of the following labels is NOT associated with a role in a buying Decision Making Unit?
(A) Supplier
(B) Gatekeeper
(C) Decision maker
(D) User
19. A secretary who answers calls for a company buyer may be taking on which role within the company's decision-making unit?
(A) User
(B) Influencer
(C) Gatekeeper
(D) Buyer
20. Which of the following is NOT an element of a Marketing Information System?
(A) Marketing research
(B) Decision support system
(C) Production monitoring system
(D) None of these

FEDERAL BANK RECRUITMENT OF CLERKS & PROBATIONARY OFFICERS - 2010

FOR FEDERAL BANK RECRUITMENT OF CLERKS & PROBATIONARY OFFICERS - 2010 CLICK HERE