Sunday, August 29, 2010

NUMERICAL APTITUDE QUESTIONS



1 (95.6x 910.3) ÷ 92.56256 = 9?
(A) 13.14
(B) 12.96
(C) 12.43
(D) 13.34
(E) None of these

2. (4 86%of 6500) ÷ 36 =?
(A) 867.8
(B) 792.31
(C) 877.5
(D) 799.83
(E) None of these

3. (12.11)2 + (?)2 = 732.2921
(A)20.2
(B) 24.2
(C)23.1
(D) 19.2
(E) None of these

4.576÷ ? x114=8208
(A)8
(B)7
(C)6
(D)9
(E) None of these

5. (1024—263—233)÷(986—764— 156) =?
(A)9
(B)6
(C)7
(D)8
(E) None of these

6. ?125÷5x ?=6265
(A)1253
(B) 1250
(C)1245
(D) 1550
(E) None of these

7.(42)2÷6.3 x 26 =?
(A)7182
(B) 7269
(C)7260
(D) 7240
(E) None of these

8.384×12×2=?
(A)9024
(B) 9216
(C)6676
(D) 6814
(E) None of these

9.6534÷40÷33=?
(A)3.06
(B) 5.25
(C)4.82
(D) 6.12
(E) None of these

10. ?2704 x ?2209=?
(A)1996
(B)2444
(C)2452
(D)1983
(E)None of these

11.2536+4851—?=3450+313
(A)3961
(B)4532
(C)3624
(D)4058
(E) None of these

12. (2560 x 1.4) +(7400 x 0.6) =?
(A)7512
(B) 9746
(C)6523
(D) 8024
(E) None of these

13. 36%of 850+? %of 592 = 750
(A)73
(B)89
(C)82
(D)75
(E) None of these

14.64%of 2650+40% 0f 320=?
(A)1824
(B) 1902
(C)1829
(D) 1964
(E) None of these

15. 486+32×25—59=?
(A) 514
(B) 528
(C) 599
(D) 507
(E) None of these

16. 1827÷ 36 x ?=162.4
(A)4.4
(B)3.2
(C)2.1
(D) 3.7
(E) None of these

17. 1008÷36=?
(A)28
(B) 32.5
(C)36
(D) 22.2
(E) None of these

18. 56.21 +2.36+5.41 —21.4+1.5=?
(A)40.04
(B) 46.18
(C)44.08
(D) 43.12
(E) None of these

19. 65%of 320+?=686
(A) 480
(B) 452
(C)461
(D) 475
(E) None of these

20. 83250÷?=74×25
(A)50
(B) 45
(C)40
(D) 55
(E) None of these

21. ?7744=?
(A)88
(B)62
(C)58
(D)78
(E)None of these

22.35%of ?=242
(A)729
(B)652
(C)693
(D)759
(E) None of these

23. 1256+4813+765=?
(A)5642
(B) 5876
(C)6788
(D) 6878
(E) None of these

24. 22 x4+(?)2=(13)2

(A) 81
(C) 27
(B) 9
(D) 64
(E) None of these

25. 432+2170+35=?
(A)494
(B) 475
(C)481
(D) 469
(E) None of these

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?
(A) 65
(B) 52
(C) 79
(D) 63
(E) None of these

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?
(A)Rs. 349.92
(B) Rs. 300
(C)Rs. 358.92
(D) Rs. 400
(E) None of these

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7 ems. If the length is decreased by 4 cm. and the breadth is increased by 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle will be the same as the area of the original rectangle. What will be the perimeter of the original rectangle?
(A)45 cms.
(B)40 cems.
(C)50 cms.
(D)55 cms.
(E)None of these

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?
(A)28
(B) 48
(C)39
(D) 93
(E) None of these

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original fraction ?
(A)5/18
(B)6/13
(C)13/6
(D)7/12
(E) None of these

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 70
(B) 75
(C) 69
(D) 85
(E) None of these

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage

profit?
(A) 25
(B) 15
(C) 13
(D) 17
(E) None of these

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?
25, 34, 52,79, 115,?
(A)160
(B) 140
(C)153
(D) 190
(E)None of these

34. What number should replace both the question marks (?) in the following question ?
?/144= 49 /?
(A)95
(B) 76
(C)82
(D) 84
(E)None of these

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest numbers?
(A)158
(B) 148
(C)168
(D) 198
(E) None of these

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 80,500
(C) Rs. 60,700
(D) Rs. 70,500
(E) None of these

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?
(A) 150
(B) 240
(C) 120
(D) 200
(E) None of these

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?
(A)984 Square m
(B) 789 Square m
(C) 1014 Square m
(D) 1024 Square m
(E) None of these

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs. 367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A)47m
(B) 39m
(C)52m
(D)40m
(E) None of these

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be fourth?
(A)4/5
(B)5/4
(C)9/5
(D)8/5
(E) 7/2

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?
(A)9 years
(B) 4 years
(C)5 years
(D) 7 years
(E) None of these

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete the same work?
(A)16 days
(B) 20 days
(C)26 days
(D) 30 days
(E) None of these

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?
(A)29.2 cm
(B) 28.9 cm
(C)30.8 cm
(D) 40.2 cm
(E) None of these

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay joined him with a capital of Rs. 60,000. After another 6 months, Ankush joined them with a capital of Rs. 90,000. At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?
(A) Rs. 5,500
(B) Rs. 6,000
(C) Rs. 6,600
(D) As. 5,900
(E) None of these

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years respectively?
(A)60 years
(B) 49 years
(C)45 years
(D) 58 years
(E) None of these

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank individually in 10 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. However, there is a leakage at the bottom which can empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much time will both the taps take to fill the tank (leakage is still there) ?
(A) 8 minutes
(B) 7 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D)15 minutes
(E) None of these

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?
(A) Rs. 690
(B) As. 520
(C) Rs. 517.5
(D) Rs. 499.2
(E) None of these

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would each person get?
(A) Rs. 2,54,876
(B) Rs. 2,34,68
(C) Rs. 3,74,20
(D) Rs. 1,95,62
(E) None of these

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the probability that only one ball is white?
(A) 71/190
(B) 121/190
(C) 91/190
(D) 93/190
(E) None of these

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors and 9 pen stands?
(A) Rs. 1,320
(B) Rs. 1,500
(C) Rs.1,150
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

ANSWERS:
1 - D
2 - C
3 - B
4 - A
5 - D
6 - A
7 - E
8 - B
9 - E
10 - B
11 - C
12 - D
13 - D
14 - A
15 - B
16 - B
17 - A
18 - C
19 - E
20 - B
21 - A
22 - C
23 - E
24 - B
25 - A
26 - A
27 - B
28 - C
29 - C
30 - D
31 - B
32 - D
33 - A
34 - D
35 - C
36 - A
37 - E
38 - A
39 - D
40 - B
41 - E
42 - C
43 - C
44 - A
45 - B
46 - A
47 - A
48 - B
49 - E
50 - D

Karnataka Bank Clerical Exam

Directions (Q1, 2, 3): Choose the word which most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in CAPITALS as used in the passage.
1. SCALE
1. balance
2. proportion
3. quality
4. steep
5. trace
2. ENVIABLE
1. miserable
2. disappointing
3. insurmountable
4. pessimistic
5. admirable
3. SIPID
1. Flavoured
2. Stupid
3. Beautiful
4. Rude
5. None of these
Directions (Q. 4, 5): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in CAPITALS as used in the passage.
4. DEPENDABLE
1. independent
2. creditable
3. unreliable
4. unapproachable
5. incongruent
5. FRAGILE
1. weak
2. perfect
3. vulnerable
4. robust
5. delicate
Directions (Q. 6-10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part of the sentence is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5). (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.)
6. At present, nearly / all foundries of / the country use coke / as a natural fuel. / No error
7. The Bill ensures that / the chairperson or members / cannot be removed out of office / except by an order of the President / No error
8. The directives in the holy books thus lay / emphasis on the need to / avoid get caught / on the stranglehold of worldly attractions / No error
9. An effective criminal law / is required for / effective implementation of / rules of law / No error
10. Local residents told the Chief Minister / that the building / was unauthorised construction / No error
Directions (Q. 11-15): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
11. A _______ is known for his _______
1. hypocrite, honesty
2. braggart, modesty
3. altruist, truthfulness
4. mercenary, sincerity
5. philanthropist, benevolence
12. One _______ by which we may estimate the character of a man in public office is his _______
1. hyperbole, intuition
2. criterion, integrity
3. amenity, civility
4. unwary, irritable
5. specious, misanthropic
13. Because of his _______ honesty, employers tolerated his _______ outbursts and did not fire him
1. rapacious, amenable
2. unwavering, irascible
3. amiable, regular
4. unwary, irritable
5. specious, misanthropic
14. The _______ law of increase old age pensions was passed to _______ the hardship of the elderly voters in the state.
1. auspicious, mollify
2. expedient, alleviate
3. equivocal, aggravate
4. exemplary, condone
5. notorious, assuage
15. When I listened to his _______ arguments, all my doubts were _______ and I was forced to agree with his point of view.
1. competent, compelled
2. congruent, confirmed
3. cogent, dispelled
4. forceful, repelled
5. fluent, ignored
Directions (Q. 16-20): Which of the following phrases 1, 2, 3, and 4 given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence either correct or phrased in different words?
16. No caring for the family, Dhanraj wanted to gather roses only.
1. wanted to paint a rosy picture of the past
2. make safe investment
3. wanted to start the business of roses
4. wanted to seek all enjoyments of life
5. None of these
17. After the successful performance of the great actor was over, there was thunderstruck applause.
1. fearful
2. cheerful
3. decisive
4. thunderous
5. No correction required
18. We might not be able to change the situation quickly, but we should continue our efforts in that direction.
1. could not be
2. had not been
3. would not
4. did not
5. No correction required
19. The monograph, which was published three years ago, would suggest that by 2001 there will be 73 million TV sets in India.
1. has been suggesting
2. would have suggested
3. will suggest
4. had suggested
5. No correction required
20. Some of the African have been enmeshed in an inescapable debt trap.
1. entangled
2. hit
3. struck
4. ensured
5. None of these
Answers:
1. 2, 2. 5, 3. 1, 4. 3, 5. 4, 6. 2, 7. 3, 8. 3, 9. 4, 10. 4
11. 5, 12. 2, 13. 2, 14. 2, 15. 3, 16. 4, 17. 4, 18. 5, 19. 4, 20. 1

REASONING QUESTIONS

Directions (Q. 1-5):  Answer these questions referring to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below:
5 6 $ V W F? 4? M I 9 TB 8 U3 £G 2# * H E 7 N 1 Y A X


1. How many symbols are there which are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a letter?
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) 5
5) None of these

2. If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which letter/number will the be eleventh to the left of fifteenth letter/number from your left?
1) M
2) 1
3) 7
4) F
5) None of these

3. If the positions of the first and the sixteenth elements, second and seventeenth elements, and so on up to eleventh and twenty-sixth elements, are interchanged, which letter/number/symbols will be seventh to the right of nineteenth letter/number/symbol from the right?
1) 6
2) $
3) X
4) V
5) None of these

4. If the positions of the letters in the sequence are reoccupied by the letters themselves though after getting rearranged alphabetically from the left, which of the following will indicate the position of M in the new arrangement?
1) M is between * and 2
2) M is 13th from the right
3) M is 21st from the right
4) M is 15th from the left
5) None of these

5. What is the total number of 'the numbers immediately followed by a letter' and 'the symbols immediately following the letters' together in the above sequence?
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
5) None of these

Directions (Q.6-10): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step.
The following is an illustration of the input and the steps of rearrangement.
Input: wearing dress tops strappy you avoid arm
Step I: strappy wearing dress tops you avoid arm
Step II: strappy wearing avoid dress tops you arm
Step III: strappy wearing avoid dress tops arm you
(Step III is the last step for this input)
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the appropriate step for the given input.

6. Input: threats gang careful answer agree classes more Which of the following will be the third step for this input?
1) careful threats gang answer agree classes more
2) careful classes threats answer gang agree more
3) careful answer classes agree threats gang more
4) careful classes threats gang answer agree more
5) None of these

7. If the second step of an input is 'children teachers bunking school canteen movie freedom' which of the following will be its fifth step?
1) children teachers bunking canteen school movie freedom
2) bunking teachers children school canteen movie freedom
3) canteen freedom school movie children teachers bunking
4) children teachers bunking movie canteen school freedom
5) It cannot have fifth step.

8. If the input is 'pangs of worst and fears the neglect', which of the following will be the IV step?
1) neglect fears pangs worst and of the
2) and the neglect of pangs worst fears
3) and the of neglect pangs worst fears
4) worst pangs fears neglect of and the
5) Cannot be determined

9. Input: 'her famous away sibling thing usual stay'. Which of the following steps would be the last step for this input?
1) III
2) IV
3) V
4) VI
5) VII

10. If step V of an input is 'holding bench elbow floor bent lie your on', what will be step II?
1) on lie holding bench floor bent elbow your
2) holding bench elbow lie your floor on bent
3) holding bench elbow floor lie your on bent
4) holding lie your elbow bench floor on bent
5) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 11-16): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A leading English daily of India, ABC News, invites applications for the post of sub-editors in its company.
The candidates are required to fulfill, apart from (1), at least three of the following conditions for his/her selection
1) He/she must be between 21-30 yrs.
2) He/she has first class degree in his/her graduation.
3) He/she has diploma in journalism with at least 55% marks.
4) He/she has an experience of at least 2 years in a news-paper.
5) He/she has won prize at state level for his/her articles published in state-level English daily.
If, however, he/she does fulfill all conditions except
(a)(5) above, but he/she has 5 yrs. Experience in a news agency, then refer to the
editor of ABC News.
(b) (2) above, but he/she has diploma in journalism with 75%, then refer to the chairman of ABC News.
(c) (3) above, but he/she has complete graduation with 75%, then refer to the managingdirectors of ABC News.
  All the information are given to you on 01-10-2000. Now, you have to take decision in regard to each case given below.
You are not to assume any information.
Give answer
(1) if the candidate is not to be selected.
(2) if the candidate is to be selected.
(3) if the candidate is to be referred to the chairman.
(4) if the candidate is to be referred to the managing director.
(5) if the candidate is to be referred to the editor.

11. Niharika Chawla, a 26-year-old graduate from Delhi University with 66% marks, has also done her diploma in journalism from Jamia with 75% marks. She has been working with The Hindu, Delhi for the last 3 years.

12. Shrya Singh, a first class graduate from Patna University, has done diploma in journalism from the same university with 72% marks. She has won several prizes for his articles at state level and has been working with The Hindustan Times, Patna from 20.07.98.

13. Akanksha Mathur, who hails from Mumbai, is a graduate from University of Mumbai with 50% marks. She also holds a degree in journalism with 76% marks. She has been working with Mid Day, Mumbai for the last 4 years. Her date of birth is 29-07-76.

14. Rohit Sen has won many awards for his articles at state level and he has been working with The Telegraph,Calcutta since 1995. He did his B.Com with 77% marks from University of Calcutta and after that he finished his diploma in journalism from Jadavpur university with 53%. His date of birth is 15-10-74.

15. Swatika Gupta is an English Hons. graduate from Bangalore University with 63% marks. She also holds diploma in journalism from the same university with 56% marks. Her date of birth is 22-09-71. She has been working with The Economic Times, Bangalore for the last one year.

16. Amisha Patel holds B.Sc. and diploma in journalism degree with 64% and 60% marks respectively from University of Ahmedabad. She is working with The Tribune, Ahmedabad. for last 7 years and she has won many prizes at state level for her articles. She is very hardworking and professional.

Directions (Q. 17-21): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer
1) if only assumption I is implicit.
2) if only assumption II is implicit.
3) if either I nor II is implicit.
4) if neither I nor II is implicit.
5) if both I and II are implicit.

17. Statement: Order can be maintained only when law becomes enforceable. Law implies the corpus of rules or injunctions that need to be obeyed by one and all without exception.
Assumptions: I. The acceptance of a law by the people is a must for its effectiveness.
II.There is a section of people who are law unto themselves.

18. Statement:Sanskrit is a 'dead' language and its study in school is obsolete.
Assumptions: I. Sanskrit has no utility in our day-to-day life.
II. Schools should teach the students only such matters as are related to what they want to do in their lives.

19. Statement: “In India, the wheels of justice hardly move. “ - An American newspaper
Assumptions: I. Judicial process in India is dilatory,expensive, and beyond the reach of common people.
II. It is necessary for a civilised society to have a prompt judiciary.

20. Statement: To India and Indians, monsoon can be a bringer of bounty as well as harbinger of death.
Assumptions: I. The economy and the vast majority of the people in India are still dependent on rain.
II. In India, almost every year some part or the other is ravaged by floods.

21. Statement:So long as there is a caste-based society in our country, there is no harm in having caste-based organizations to look after the welfare of their castes.
Assumptions: I. There is nothing wrong in having religious organizations to spread their ideals.
II.Political parties cannot look after the welfare of different castes like caste-based organizations can.

22. If K means ×, H means ÷, M means + and N means -,
then what is the value of    1 K 3 H 2 M 2 N ?
1) Zero
2) 4
3) -4
4) 2
5) None of these

23. How many pairs of letters are there in the word GOAL-KEEPER which have the same number of letters between them as in English alphabet?
1) Five
2) Four
3) Seven
4) Six
5) None of these

24. If it is possible to make a meaningful word from the 3rd, 5th, 6th, 7th and 9th letters of the word PROGESTER-ONE, using each letter only once, third letter of the word would be your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, your answer would be S and if no such word can be formed, answer is M.
1) M
2) K
3) O
4) E
5) None of these

25. In the following number series how many 9's are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of the pair of numbers immediately following?
8 7 9 9 684 593 84 9 2 5 1 9 2 2 6 9 4 3 9 2 5 8 9 3 7
1) 4
2) 3
3) 6
4) 5
5) None of these

ANSWERS: 1. (2) 2. (5) 3. (4) 4. (5) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (5) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (5) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (2)15.(1) 16. (1) 17. (5) 18. (5) 19. (4) 20. (5)
 21. (2) 22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3)

UCO BANK REASONING QUESTIONS

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)
4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC. How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)
7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)
10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
Directions-(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.
11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets. All planets are satellites.Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)
12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)
13. Statements : All curtains are rods. Some rods are sheets. Some sheets are pillows. Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs. Some plugs are bulbs. All bulbs are sockets. Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E
Directions-(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’

21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions-(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C– Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

SBI Reasoning Section

1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)

2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)

3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)

4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)

7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)

10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Directions : (Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.

11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)

12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)


14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)

15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 - 541 - 654 - 953 - 983


16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)

17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)

18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)

Directions : (Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’


21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions : (Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3


Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.

26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.

31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

UCO Bank Numerical Ability Questions

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes(b) 25 minutes(c) 28 minutes(d) 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096(b) 8192(c) 512(d) 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100(b) 103(c) 78(d) 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle(b) Midpoint of the diameter(c) Exterior of the triangle(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31
Answers
1-A, 11-B, 21-C, 31-D, 41-A, 2-B, 12-A, 22-B, 32-D, 42-A, 3-A, 13-D, 23-A, 33-B, 43-B, 4-B 14-D, 24-C, 34-D, 44-C, 5-C, 15-A , 25-B, 35-C, 45-A, 6 -B, 16-C, 26-A, 36-D, 46-C, 7-C, 17-D, 27-B, 37-B, 47-B, 8-D, 18-A, 28-D, 38-C, 48-D, 9-C, 19-C, 29-C, 39-C, 49-B, 10-B, 20-B, 30-B, 40-C, 50-B

Wednesday, August 25, 2010

SPECIALIST OFFICERS JOBS IN SBI ASSOCIATE BANKS


STATE BANK Of INDIA (SBI)
Central Recruitment & Promotion Department (CRPD)
Corporate Centre, Mumbai


State Bank Group invites online applications to recruit Specialist Officer in its Associate Banks (State Bank of Travancore, State Bank of Suarashtra, State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Indore, State Bank of Patiala etc.) for the posts in field of Law, Security, Civil Engineering, Electrical Engineering, Systems, Hardware, Official Language & Chartered Accountants.

How to Apply: Apply Online at SBI web site from 24/08/2010 to 25/09/2010. Take a printout of the system generated application form, after filling all the relevant information and send it with necessary documents/ testimonials and application fee by 30/09/2010 at the designated address as prescribed in the detailed advertisement.

Kindly visit Recruitment section at http://sbi.co.in  for detailed information.

CANARA BANK SPECIALIST OFFICERS RECRUITMENT-2010

                                                         Recruitment Cell, Personnel Wing
                            Head Office (Annexe), Naveen Complex, 14, M G Road, Bangalore – 560 001
                                                                     www.canarabank.com
CB / RP / 3 / 2010
RECRUITMENT OF SPECIALIST OFFICERS
APPLICATIONS ARE INVITED FROM INDIAN CITIZENS FOR APPOINTMENT TO THE FOLLOWING POSTS OF SPECIALIST OFFICERS
Eligible candidates are requested to apply ON-LINE through Bank’s website www.canarabank.com. No other means / mode of Application will be accepted.
Unless the system generated print-out of the registered application is received by post, along with Payment Challan, Photo and other relevant documents, the on-line registration is not valid.
Important Dates
Event
Date
Opening Date for on-line registration on Website
25.08.2010
Closing Date for on-line registration on Website [including far-flung areas]
20.09.2010
Last date for receipt of system generated print-out of registered application along with Payment Challan & other documents
27.09.2010
Last date for receipt of system generated print-out of registered application along with Payment Challan & other documents from far-flung areas@
04.10.2010
Tentative Date of Written Test
12.12.2010
The details of posts are as follows; 
Post
Code
Post Name
Scale
No. of
Posts
Age [Years]
Min-Max
1
Assistant General Manager – Chief Security Officer
SMGS-V
01
55* (Max)
2
Divisional Manager – Chartered Accountant
SMGS-IV
03
28 - 40
3
Divisional Manager – HR Planning & Development
SMGS-IV
01
28 - 40
4
Divisional Manager – Technical
SMGS-IV
05
28 – 40
5
Senior Manager – Chartered Accountant
MMGS-III
08
25 - 35
6
Senior Manager – Technical
MMGS-III
17
25 – 35
7
Manager – Technical
MMGS-II
03
21 – 32
8
Agri-Business Marketing Officer
JMGS-I
10
21 – 30
9
Computer Programmer
JMGS-I
07
21 – 30
10
Database Administrator
JMGS-I
01
21 - 30
11
Financial Analyst
JMGS-I
14
21 - 30
12
Junior Economist
JMGS-I
01
21 - 30
13
Law Officer
JMGS-I
55
21 - 30
14
Network Administrator
JMGS-I
07
21 - 30
15
Official Language Officer
JMGS-I
05
21 – 30
16
Security Officer
JMGS-I
15
21 – 40*
17
SME Marketing Officer
JMGS-I
10
21 – 30
18
Systems Engineer
JMGS-I
01
21 – 30
19
Technical Field Officer – Civil
JMGS-I
03
21 - 30
20
Technical Field Officer – Electrical
JMGS-I
02
21 - 30
21
Technical Field Officer – Mechanical
JMGS-I
18
21 – 30

Total
187

* inclusive of all relaxations
Reservations: 
Scale
No. of Posts for
SC
ST
OBC
UR
Total
Of which PWD
VC
HI
OC
Total
SMGS-V
-
-
-
1
1
-
-
-
-
SMGS-IV
1
-
2
6
9
-
-
-
-
MMGS-III
4
3
9
9
25
-
-
1
1
MMGS-II
-
-
-
3
3
-
2
1
3
JMGS-I
22
11
41
75
149
1
1
2
4
Total
27
14
52
94
187
1
3
4
8
Note: (a) The number of posts and the reservations provided are provisional and may vary according to actual requirement of the Bank. (b) 3% of the total posts @ 1% each for VC, HI & OC candidates are reserved for the Persons with Disabilities. It is clarified that it may not be possible to employ Persons with Disabilities in all Offices / Branches of the Bank and they will have to work in the posts identified by the Bank as suitable for them. (c) As the reservation for PWD candidates is on horizontal basis, the selected candidates will be placed in the appropriate category to which the candidate belongs. The above reservation is inclusive of shortfall / backlog reservation.
Abbreviations:: SMGS-V – Senior Management Grade Scale V; SMGS-IV – Senior Management Grade Scale IV; MMGS-III – Middle Management Grade Scale III; MMGS-II – Middle Management Grade Scale II; JMGS-I – Junior Management Grade Scale I; SC - Scheduled Caste; ST - Scheduled Tribe; OBC - Other Backward Class; UR – Un Reserved; PWD – Persons With Disabilities; VC - Visually Challenged; HI - Hearing Impaired; OC - Orthopaedically Challenged.
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA & OTHER DETAILS: All the eligibility criteria [qualification, experience, age etc] shall be computed as on 01.08.2010.
Post Code-1: Assistant General Manager – Chief Security Officer [SMG Scale – V]
  1. Qualification:

    - Colonel & above in the Army or a person of equivalent rank in Navy / Air Force. OR
    - Police Officer of the rank of Deputy Inspector General or a person of equivalent rank in the para military forces.

  2. Experience:

    Inbuilt experience mentioned under the qualification criteria.

  3. Job Profile:

    Overall security monitoring and rendering advice on Adequacy of Security aspects and Fire Safety of existing and proposed branches / currency chests to circles; Liaisoning with Police & other Security Officials; Convening security committee meetings etc.

Post Code-2: Divisional Manager – Chartered Accountant [SMG Scale – IV]
  1. Qualification:

    - Graduate with CA.
    - Candidates with additional qualification of MBA (Finance) / ICWA / CFA will be preferred.

  2. Experience:

    Minimum 8 years experience in project appraisal, syndication or Credit department preferably in Banks / FIs / Consultancy organizations / firms.

  3. Job Profile:

    Project Appraisal, Loan Syndication etc.
Post Code-3: Divisional Manager – HR Planning & Development [SMG Scale – IV]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in Graduation with MBA (HR / Personnel management) full time / Post Graduate Degree (HR / Personnel Management/ Industrial Relations / Labour Law / Labour welfare). Candidates with Ph.D qualification will be preferred.

  2. Experience:

    Minimum 8 years post qualification experience in related field. Candidates having experience in Banks / FI’s are preferred.

  3. Job Profile:

    Manpower planning; Organisation Structure; Recruitment; Training; Formulation & Implementation of HR policies etc.
Post Code-4: Divisional Manager – Technical [SMG Scale – IV]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in B.E / B.Tech in Mechanical/ Electrical Engineering or its equivalent.
    Candidates with additional qualification of MBA / ICWA will be preferred.

  2. Experience:

    Minimum 8 years experience in either project appraisal, syndication or credit department preferably in Banks / FIs.
          
    Candidates working in Consultancy organizations / firms with the above experience may also be considered.

  3. Job Profile:

    Project appraisal, Sourcing of syndication Assignments, Liaisoning with the clients & bankers.
Post Code-5: Senior Manager – Chartered Accountant [MMG Scale – III]
  1. Qualification:

    Graduation with CA.

    Candidates with additional qualification of MBA / ICWA will be preferred.

  2. Experience:

    5 years experience in project appraisal, syndication or credit department preferably in Banks / FIs.

    Candidates working in Consultancy organizations / firms with the above experience may also be considered.

  3. Job Profile:

    Project appraisal, Financial modeling, Financial & Balance Sheet Analysis, Sourcing of syndication assignments, Liaisoning with the Client & bankers, Marketing of the debt as a part of syndication etc
Post Code-6: Senior Manager – Technical [MMG Scale – III]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent Grade in B.E. / B.Tech in Mechanical / Electrical Engineering or its equivalent. Candidates with additional qualification of MBA will be preferred.

  2. Experience:

    5 years experience in project appraisal, syndication or Credit department preferably in Banks / FIs.

    Candidates working in Consultancy organizations / firms with the above experience may also be considered.

  3. Job Profile:

    Project appraisal, sourcing of syndication assignments, liaisoning with the Clients & bankers.
Post Code-7: Manager – Technical [MMG Scale – II]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in B.E. / B.Tech in Mechanical / Electrical Engineering or its equivalent. Candidates with additional qualification of MBA / ICWA will be preferred.

  2. Experience:

    2 years experience in project appraisal, syndication or Credit department preferably in Banks / FIs.

    Candidates working in Consultancy organizations / firms with the above experience may also be considered.

  3. Job Profile:

    Project appraisal, Sourcing of Syndication Assignments, Liaisoning with the Clients & Bankers etc.
Post Code-8: Agri-Business Marketing Officer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    Post Graduate in Agri-business Management or Post Graduate in Rural Management from institutes like MANAGE-Hyderabad, NIAM-Jaipur, IRMA- Anand and who have secured first class / `A’ grade or equivalent.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Agri-business Marketing – Developing tailor made products; Develop marketing strategies and implement them through field level units; Syndicate large loans etc.
Post Code-9: Computer Programmer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE (Computer Science / Information Technology / Electronics) or equivalent.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Software development; Database Management; Testing & Documentation; Knowledge in Visual Basic / Java / D2K / Crystal Reports etc.
Post Code-10: Database Administrator [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE (Computer Science / Information Technology / Electronics) or equivalent. Candidates with RDBMS certification & Knowledge in Oracle shall be preferred

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Database administration preferably in Oracle, Maintaining the database; Report generation; Rectification of problems in database; Trouble Shooting; Purging; Archiving; Back-up; Re-organisation of Database; Performance tuning; Defining Oracle Parameters etc.

Post Code-11: Financial Analyst [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in MBA (Finance) / Pass in CA / ICWA / CFA / M.Sc (Statistics) / MA (Economics) with statistics & applied econometrics.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Profit Planning, Capital Planning, ALM, Profitability Research, Analysis of Balance Sheet, Future projection of financial data etc.

Post Code-12: Junior Economist [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in Post Graduate Degree in Economics / Econometrics / Banking / Finance / International Economics / Industrial Economics.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Analysis of macro-economic environment, financial sector reforms; impact of monetary, fiscal and other policies on Banking Sector; giving key inputs for proper policy formulation etc.

Post Code-13: Law Officer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    Graduation with LLB / LLB (5 Years Course)

  2. Experience:

    2 years at BAR Council as an Advocate or as an Officer in the legal department of Central / State Government or a Public Sector Organization OR 2 years experience as a member of State Judicial Services is essential.

  3. Job Profile:

    Legal matters relating to Banking Laws, Labour Laws, Civil Laws, Tax Laws, Service Matters, Criminal Laws, Procedural Laws, Information Technology Laws, Company Laws, Right to Information Act etc.

Post Code-14: Network Administrator [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE (Telecommunication) or equivalent.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Maintaining Network and Network equipments; Network monitoring and trouble shooting; Adding Network Equipments to network; Liaisoning with service provider; Ensuring maximum uptime of the network, knowledge of HP open view etc.

Post Code-15: Official Language Officer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in Post Graduation in Hindi,  with English as one of the subjects at Degree Level.

  2. Experience:

    Minimum 1 year experience in Translation from English to Hindi and vice-versa in a full time post in a reputed organization OR
    One year Post Graduate Diploma in Translation from English to Hindi and vice-versa is preferable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Implementation of Official Language in the Bank, Attending to Translation work and other works assigned from time to time.

Post Code-16: Security Officer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    Graduation or any equivalent qualification.

  2. Experience:

    An Officer with 5 years of commissioned service in Army / Navy / Airforce and not below the rank of Captain or equivalent or an Officer of identical rank in Para Military Forces with 5 years experience.

  3. Job Profile:

    Monitoring and rendering advice on Adequacy of Security aspects and Fire Safety of existing and proposed branches / currency chests; Liaisoning with Police & other Security Officials; Training Armed Guards etc. Convening circle level security committee meetings; Compiling and maintaining details for Circle Security Profile etc.

Post Code-17: SME Marketing Officer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in Graduation with MBA (Marketing).

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Conceiving SME Products depending upon market requirement; Canvassing individual proposals and recommending them to branches / Circle Offices; Organizing meets / loan mela in co-ordination with Circle Offices and Industrial associations in their command area etc.

Post Code-18: Systems Engineer [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE (Computer Science / Information Technology / Electronics) or equivalent / MCA.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Maintenance, monitoring and management of software and hardware etc.

Post Code-19: Technical Field Officer - Civil [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE / B Tech (Civil) or Equivalent

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Evaluation of housing projects, entering into tie–up with builders / developers, independent valuation etc.

Post Code-20: Technical Field Officer - Electrical [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE / B Tech (Electrical) or Equivalent

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Maintenance and Monitoring of Building Electrical equipments, UPS, Generators, Assessing / Reviewing the power requirement for the building, Liaisoning with vendors, Government Bodies etc.
Post Code-21: Technical Field Officer - Mechanical [JMG Scale – I]
  1. Qualification:

    First class / equivalent grade in BE / B Tech (Mechanical) or equivalent.

  2. Experience:

    Experience in the field desirable.

  3. Job Profile:

    Techno-economic feasibility studies of Industrial Projects including Infrastructural projects; Drawing up revival / rehabilitation packages of industrial units under the purview of CDR; Post sanction monitoring of industrial projects during implementation and regular operations; Loan Syndication and Asset Securitization; Data mining and warehousing with reference to industrial projects; Handling of credit matters in Branches and Administrative Units etc.
Note:
A candidate can apply for a maximum of 2 posts only.
All the qualifications mentioned should be from a recognized University / Institution.
For posts, where experience is essential / desirable, it should be full time in the relevant field of the post applied for and will only be counted from the date of acquiring the prescribed qualification.
The job profile mentioned is only in brief. Bank reserves right to assign any other duties / responsibilities depending on the requirement.
COMPUTER LITERACY: Operating computer systems in MS-DOS, MS Windows, Basic concepts of Networking & Connectivity, MS Office [Word, Excel, PowerPoint, e-mail etc.] shall be an essential qualification, which a candidate must either possess or acquire within 6 months from the date of joining the Bank [except for post codes 9, 10, 14 & 18].
HINDI KNOWLEDGE: The candidates shall acquire working knowledge of Hindi, if not possessed already, before completion of probationary period.  
  1. SALARY & EMOLUMENTS:

    Scale
    Scale of Pay
    SMGS-V 36200 -1000/2 – 38200 – 1100/2 – 40400
    SMGS-IV 30600 – 900/4 – 34200 – 1000/2 - 36200
    MMGS-III 25700 – 800/5 – 29700 – 900/2 - 31500
    MMGS-II 19400 – 700/1 – 20100 – 800/10 - 28100
    JMGS-I 14500 – 600/7 – 18700 – 700/2 – 20100 – 800/7 - 25700
    Dearness Allowance, HRA, CCA, Medical Aid, Hospitalisation expenses, Leave Fare Concession, Conveyance etc shall be paid as per rules. Perquisites like Quarters, Furniture etc shall be provided to Officer-employees as per rules.
  2. DEFINITIONS:
    1. Ex-Servicemen [XSM]:

      Only those candidates shall be treated as Ex-Servicemen who fulfill the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms Notification No.36034/5/85/Estt.(SCT) dated 27.10.1986 as amended from time to time.
      Note: The Territorial Army Personnel will be treated as ex-servicemen w.e.f. 15.11.1986.
    2. Persons with Disabilities [PWD]:

      • Visually Challenged [VC]:

        1. Blindness refers to a condition where a person suffers from any of the following conditions namely (a) Total absence of sight or (b) Visual acuity not exceeding 6/60 or 20/200 {snellen} in the better eye with correcting lenses; or (c) limitation of the field of vision subtending an angle of 20 degree or worse.
        2. Low Vision means a person with impairment of visual functioning even after treatment or standard refractive correction but who uses or is potentially capable of using vision for the planning or execution of a task with appropriate assistive device.
      • Hearing Impairment [HI] means loss of 60 decibels or more in the better ear in the conversational range of frequencies.

      • Orthopaedically Challenged [OC] – All the cases of OC persons are covered under the category of Locomotor disability or cerebral palsy.
        Locomotor Disability means disability of the bones, joints or muscles leading to substantial restriction of the movement of the limbs or any forms of cerebral palsy.
        Cerebral Palsy means a group of non-progressive conditions of a person characterized by abnormal motor control posture resulting from brain insult or injuries occurring in the pre-natal, peri-natal or infant period of development.

      Only such persons would be eligible for reservation in services / posts who suffer from not less than 40% of relevant disability.
  3. NATIONALITY / CITIZENSHIP:
    A candidate must be either i] a citizen of India or ii] a subject of Nepal or iii] a subject of Bhutan or iv] a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 01.01.1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or v] a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia & Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) or (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A Candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination/interview conducted by the Bank, but on final selection the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificates issued by the Government of India, are produced.
  4. RELAXATION IN UPPER AGE LIMIT

    1. Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe candidates - by 5 years;
    2. Other Backward Classes candidates - by 3 years;
    3. Persons with Disabilities - by 10 years;
    4. All persons who are ordinarily domiciled in Kashmir Division of J&K State during 01.01.80 to 31.12.89 - by  5 years;
    5. Ex-servicemen (Excepting Post Codes 1 & 16): Commissioned Officers including those ECOs / SSCOs who have rendered at least 5 years Military service and have been released on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed on or before 30.09.2010) otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency or physical disability attributable to Military service or on invalidment – by 5 years

    NOTE:
    1. The relaxation in upper age limit to SC/ST/OBC candidates is allowed on cumulative basis with only one of the remaining categories for which age relaxation is permitted as mentioned above in Point No. 4 (iii) to 4 (v)
    2. Persons eligible for age relaxation under 4(iv) above must produce the domicile certificate at the time of interview from the District Jurisdiction where he / she had ordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this regard by the Government of Jammu & Kashmir to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of J&K during the period from 01.01.80 to 31.12.89.
    3. An Ex-servicemen who has once joined in a Govt. job on the civil side after availing the benefits given to him as an Ex-servicemen for his re-employment, his Ex-servicemen status for the purpose of re-employment in Government ceases.

  5. APPLICATION FEE & POSTAL CHARGES (NON REFUNDABLE) 

    Category
    Amount
    SC / ST / PWD
    50/- [Postage only]
    All Others
    300/-
    PROCEDURE FOR MAKING PAYMENT OF APPLICATION FEE / POSTAL CHARGES:
    Kindly check the eligibility for the post, before paying the fees.
    The application fee / postal charges can be paid by Directly crediting the amount in any of the Canara Bank Branch.
    The procedure for payment of fee is mentioned below;
    1. Take print-out of the Payment Challan from website [Click here to download the Payment Challan]
    2. Fill the particulars viz, Name, Date of Birth, Contact Phone No., Category, Post Applied for, Post Code, Amount deposited, Depositing Branch Name & City
    3. Submit the Fee Payment Challan & amount in any Canara Bank Branch
    4. Collect the candidate's copy of Fee Payment Challan from the Branch. Please check that challan is properly signed & the details of Transaction Sequence No., Branch Name & DP Code Number, Deposit Date are noted in the challan by the Branch Authorities.
    5. Log on to bank website www.canarabank.com for applying on-line.
    After on-line registration, candidates are requested to write their Registration Number on the back of the Payment Challan. 
    The application fee / postal charges should be paid during the following dates;
    From: 25.08.2010 To: 20.09.2010
    Even if the last date of registration changes due to technical reasons, the valid dates for payment of application fee / postal charges will not be changed.
    Payment of fee by Demand Draft / Cheque / Money Orders / Postal Orders etc will not be accepted and such applications will be summarily rejected.
  6. SELECTION PROCEDURE: 
    The selection for the posts is as mentioned below;
    Post Codes
    Selection Procedure
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 12 & 16
    Shortlisting and Interview
    8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20 & 21
    Written Test and / or Interview
    For Post Codes – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 12 & 16:
    The selection for these posts shall be on the basis of shortlisting and performance in the interview.
    Mere satisfying the eligibility norms does not imply that the Bank is satisfied beyond doubt about the candidates’ eligibility and shall not vest any right in a candidate for being called for interview. The Bank reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for interview after preliminary screening / shortlisting with reference to the candidate’s qualification, experience, suitability.
    Maximum marks for Interview is 100 and the final selection shall be on the basis of performance in Interview only.
    For Post Codes – 8, 9, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 17, 18, 19, 20 & 21:
    The selection for these posts shall be on the basis of written test and / or interview.
    The test may be conducted On-line / Off-line. The written test shall consist of Objective Test & Descriptive Test. The details of test are as follows;
    Test
    Subject
    No. of
    Questions
    Marks
    Time
    [Minutes]
    Objective
    Test
    Test of Reasoning
    75
    75
    135
    Quantitative Aptitude
    50
    50
    Test of General Awareness
    50
    50
    Test of English
    50
    50
    Descriptive
    Test*
    On Specialisation Subject
    Attempt 4
    out of 5
    100
    60
    *If the test is conducted ON-LINE, the test on specialisation subject will be objective.
    There will be negative marks for wrong answers in Objective Test. Bank will decide the minimum cut-off marks for each subject as well as Total Weighted Score [TWS]. Depending on the number of vacancies, such of those candidates who rank sufficiently high in the order of merit in the written test as per the cut off marks decided by the Bank will only be called for interview.
    Mere eligibility / admission to the test / pass in the test does not imply that the Bank is satisfied beyond doubt about the candidates’ eligibility and shall not vest any right in a candidate for being called for interview. The Bank reserves the right to call only the requisite number of candidates for interview.
    Other details regarding the test will be given to the candidates in the “Acquaint Yourself Booklet”, which will be sent along with the call letter for written examination.
    Maximum marks for Interview is 100 and the final selection shall be on the basis of marks secured by the candidate in Test and / or Interview, as decided by the Bank.
    General [for all posts]:
    The Bank reserves the right to change the selection procedure, if necessary. The change, if any, shall be communicated to the candidates in advance.
        
    The Bank would be free to reject the candidature of any candidate at any stage of the recruitment process, if he / she is found to be ineligible. If appointed, such a candidate may be summarily removed and the fees paid by the ineligible candidates shall be forfeited.
  7. DATE OF WRITTEN TEST:

    The written test is tentatively fixed on 12.12.2010 at the following Centres. The exact venue address of the test will be intimated in the Test Call Letter.

    Centre Code
    Test Centre
    Centre Code
    Test Centre
    51
    Ahmedabad
    57
    Hyderabad
    52
    Bangalore
    58
    Kolkata
    53
    Chandigarh
    59
    Lucknow
    54
    Chennai
    60
    Mumbai
    55
    Delhi
    61
    Patna
    56
    Guwahati
    62
    Thiruvananthapuram
    However, the Bank reserves its right to change the date of written test, to add/cancel the test Centres and to call the candidates for the test at any other Centre at its discretion, under unforeseen circumstances, if any. The Bank also reserves the right to allot the candidate to any centre other than the one he/she has opted for. The Candidates have to appear for the written test at the allotted Centres at their own expenses. No request for change of Centre will be entertained. The centres mentioned above are for written test only. The Bank will inform the candidates about the date, time & venue for the interviews separately.
  8. PROBATIONARY PERIOD & BOND AMOUNT:

    Scale
    Probationary
    Period
    Bond
    Amount
    Minimum Service Period
    SMGS-V
    1 year
    -Nil-
    -Nil-
    SMGS-IV
    1 year
    1 lakh
    3 years
    MMGS-III
    1 year
    1 lakh
    3 years
    MMGS-II
    2 years
    1 lakh
    3 years
    JMGS-I
    2 years
    1 lakh
    2 years

  9. HOW TO APPLY:
    The eligible candidates are required to apply ON-LINE through bank’s website www.canarabank.com. The guidelines for filling on-line application are as follows;
    • Candidates should check their eligibility prescribed for the post for which he / she wants to apply.
    • Candidates should have a valid personal e-mail id. In case, candidate is not having valid e-mail id, he/she should create a new e-mail id. This e-mail id should be valid for the duration of the project.
    • Candidates should have remitted the requisite fee in any branch of Canara Bank and should have details of payment made.
    • Please note that without valid payment details, on-line registration of application will be summarily rejected. For details of payment, check Point No.5.
    • Candidates are required to visit the Bank’s website www.canarabank.com->Careers->Positions Open page and click on the link “Recruitment Project –3/2010 – Specialist Officers” and apply for the appropriate post. Alternatively, candidates can click the link “Recruitment” scrolling in the “News Update” column, which leads to the Recruitment Page.
    • The link for registration of application will be open on our website on 25.08.2010 and closes on 20.09.2010.
    • After filling in all the required particulars, candidates shall submit the application on-line.
    • There is provision to modify the submitted on-line application. Candidates are requested to make use of this facility to correct the details in on-line application, if any. This Modification facility shall be available after 2 days of registration & up to 22.09.2010. Modification will be allowed only 3 times. After the last date, no modification will be permitted. No modification should be made, after sending the application by post.
    • Candidates should take utmost care to furnish the correct details while filling in on-line application.
    • After applying on-line with correct details, the registered candidates should obtain a system generated print-out of the registered application.
    • A recent passport size photograph should be pasted on the system generated print-out of the registered application and sign across it.
    • The system generated print-out of the registered application has to be signed by the candidates at appropriate place and the same application along with oringal payment challan and attested copies of the certificates / documents has to be sent to the address specified below.
    • Candidates should retain a copy of on-line application print out along with Registration Number & Password safely for their records.
    • Candidates can apply for a maximum of 2 posts only.
    • Candidates applying for more than one post are required to remit application fee / postage for each post separately and are required to apply on-line for each post separately. Each application should be sent to the specified address in separate cover along with payment challan & other relevant documents.
    System Generated Print-out of the Registered Application, duly complete in all respects should be sent by ORDINARY POST only in a cover superscribed “Print-out of the Application for the post of ________________ Post Code _____ in Canara Bank and Choice of Centre of Test__________”
    The application should be sent to the address printed on the System Generated Print-out of the Registered Application.
    CHECK THE FOLLOWING BEFORE SENDING THE APPLICATION BY POST:
    1. Check the correctness of the details in System generated print-out of registered application.
    2. Photo is pasted at appropriate place and signed across
    3. Signature is affixed at appropriate place
    4. The following documents are enclosed to the application;
      • Original Payment Challan
      • Date of Birth Certificate / SSC / SSLC certificate
      • Copies of the marksheets & certificates from SSC / SSLC / X STD, PUC / 10 + 2 / Intermediate, Graduation, Post Graduation & other qualifications etc.
      • Copies of experience certificates, if any
      • Copy of Caste Certificate in prescribed format in case of SC / ST / OBC category candidates
      • Copy of Medical Certificate in prescribed format in case of Persons With Disability category candidates
      • Any other relevant documents
    Address for Sending System Generated Print-out of the Registered Application:
    Canara Bank Recruitment Project – 3 / 2010 – Specialist Officers
    Post Box No. - 9722
    Borivali (East)
    MUMBAI – 400 066
  10. LAST DATE:
     
    Last date for receipt of system generated print-out of the registered application along with payment challan & other relevant documents
    27.09.2010
    Last date for receipt of system generated print-out of the registered application along with payment challan & other relevant documents from far-flung areas@
    04.10.2010
    @ Staying and posting from abroad, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Ladakh division of Jammu & Kashmir State, Lahaul & Spiti District and Pangi sub division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh.
    The Bank will not be responsible for any loss of application print-out / documents in transit or for rejection of candidature for non-receipt of print-out. The print-out of application received after last date will not be entertained.
  11. CALL LETTERS:
  12. All the communications viz, call letters for test / interview etc., will be sent to the address for communication given by the candidate in the application form by ordinary post only. Request for sending to different addresses subsequently will not be entertained. A. WRITTEN TEST CALL LETTERS: The call letters for attending the written test shall be sent to the eligible candidates by ordinary post. Candidate has to affix his / her photograph on the call letter. Candidate has to bring this call letter while attending the written test. PROCEDURE FOR DUPLICATE CALL LETTERS FOR ATTENDING TEST: Eligible candidates, who do not receive the written test call letter, may download the Duplicate Call Letter from our bank’s website www.canarabank.com by entering his / her details, between the following dates;
    Dates for downloading Duplicate Test Call Letter From 08.12.2010 to 12.12.2010
    Candidate has to affix his / her photograph on the call letter. Candidate has to bring this call letter while attending the written test.
  13. CALL LETTER FOR ATTENDING INTERVIEW:
    The candidates who have been shortlisted for direct interview posts and the candidates who have qualified in the written test & ranked sufficiently high [as mentioned in Point No. 6] in case of test posts, will only be called for the Interview and their details and Interview Schedule will be made available in Bank’s website www.canarabank.com. Interview Call Letters shall be sent by ordinary post to the candidates who have qualified for interview. Alternatively the interview call letter can be downloaded from the Bank’s website.

    Bank will not take responsibility for late receipt / non-receipt of call letter / any communication to the candidate. Hence candidates are requested to keep track of status of the recruitment process by visiting Bank’s website from time to time.

  14. ACTION AGAINST CANDIDATES FOUND GUILTY OF MISCONDUCT:
    Candidates should not furnish any particulars that are false, tampered, fabricated or suppress any material information while registering the application and submitting the certified copies / testimonials.

    At the time of written examination/interview, if a candidate is or has been found guilty of using unfair means during the test/interview; or impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person; or misbehaving in the examination hall / interview hall or taking away the question booklet, answer sheet, from the examination hall; or resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature for the selection; or obtaining support of his/her candidature by any means, such a candidate may in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, will be liable

    1. to be disqualified from the examination / interview for which he / she is a candidate
    2. to be debarred, either permanently or for a specified period from any examination or selection held by the Bank.
    The Bank/IBPS would be analyzing the responses of a candidate with other appeared candidates to detect patterns of similarity. If, as per the laid down procedure, it is suspected that the responses have been shared and the scores obtained are not genuine / valid, the Bank reserves the right to cancel his / her candidature.
  15. GUIDELINES FOR USE OF SCRIBE IN THE WRITTEN TEST [for Test Posts]:

    Wherever written examination is held, only those candidates who are blind and candidates whose writing speed is affected by cerebral palsy can use scribe at their own cost during the written examination. In all such cases, where a scribe is used, the following rules will apply:

    1. The candidate will have to arrange for the scribe at his / her own cost.
    2. The academic qualification of the scribe should be one grade lower than the stipulated minimum eligibility criteria.
    3. The scribe’s academic stream should be different from that of the candidate’s stream and scribe should possess marks less than the candidate but in any case not more than 60% in his own academic stream.
    4. The candidate as well as the scribe will have to give a suitable undertaking confirming that the scribe fulfils all the stipulated eligibility criteria for a scribe as mentioned above. Further, in case it later transpires that he/she did not fulfil any of the laid down eligibility criteria or suppressed any material facts, the candidature of the applicant will stand cancelled, irrespective of the result of the written test.
    5. Such candidates who use a scribe shall be eligible for extra time of 20 minutes for every hour of examination.
  16. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

    1. Candidates have to register on-line through Bank’s website only. No other means of applications shall be entertained.
    2. Admission to the written test / calling for interview is purely provisional. Mere receipt of call letter for written test / interview does not imply that the Bank is satisfied about the candidate’s eligibility. Candidates should ensure their eligibility before paying the fees / applying / attending the written test / interview. Bank reserves right to reject ineligible candidate’s applications at any stage and the fee paid by ineligible candidates shall be forfeited.
    3. The Application once made will not be allowed to be withdrawn and the fee once paid will not be refunded on any account nor would this fee be held in reserve for future examination / selection.
    4. Applications which are incomplete in any respect will be rejected and the fee will be forfeited.
    5. Candidates will have to appear for the written test and interview at their own expenses.

      However, outstation SC/ST/Persons with Disabilities category candidates called for interview for JMGS-I posts will be paid II class to & fro train fare or actual expenses incurred, whichever is less, by shortest route on production of proof of travel. Outstation SC/ST/Persons with Disabilities category candidates called for interview for MMGS-II and above posts,  will be paid I class to & fro train fare or actual expenses incurred, whichever is less, by shortest route on production of proof of travel.

      The above concession will not be admissible to SC/ST/Persons with Disabilities category candidates who are already in service in Central / State Government, Corporations, Public Undertakings / Local Government, Institutions and Panchayats etc.
    6. Candidates serving in Government / Public Sector Undertakings (including Banks) should send their application through proper channel. However, an advance copy of system generated print-out of registered application along with original payment challan and other relevant documents may be sent within the stipulated date. Such candidatesare required to produce a “No Objection certificate” from their employer at the time of interview, in the absence of which their candidature will not be considered.
    7. Only candidates willing to serve anywhere in India should apply.
    8. Decision of the Bank in all matters regarding eligibility of the candidate, the stages at which such scrutiny of eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents to be produced for the purpose of the conduct of interview, selection and any other matter relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate.  Further, the Bank reserves right to stall / cancel the recruitment partially / fully at any stage during the recruitment process at its discretion, which will be final and binding on the candidate.
    9. No correspondence or personal enquires shall be entertained by the Bank.
    10. Bank may, at its discretion, hold re-examination / re-interview wherever necessary in respect of a centre / venue / specified post or candidate/s.
    11. Candidates belonging to SC / ST / OBC / Persons with Disabilities categories shall submit an attested copy of certificate issued by competent authority in the prescribed format as stipulated by Government of India. In case of candidates belonging to OBC category, certificate should specifically contain a clause that the candidate does not belong to creamy layer section excluded from the benefits of reservation for Other Backward Classes in Civil post & services under Government of India.  OBC caste certificate should not be more than one year old.

      THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY FOR THE ISSUE OF THE CERTIFICATE TO SC / ST / OBC / PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES IS AS UNDER:

      I) For Scheduled Castes / Scheduled Tribes / Other Backward Classes: (i) District Magistrate / Additional District Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner / Deputy Collector / First Class Stipendary Magistrate / City Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate (not below the rank of First Class Stipendary Magistrate) / Taluk Magistrate / Executive Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner (ii)  Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate  (iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tahsildar (iv) Sub-divisional officer of the Area where the candidate and or his family normally resides.

      II) For Persons with Disabilities: Authorised certifying authority will be the Medical Board at the District level consisting of Chief Medical Officer, Sub-Divisional Medical Officer in the District and an Orthopaedic / Ophthalmic / ENT Surgeon.

      III) Prescribed Formats of SC, ST, OBC, PWD certificates can be downloaded from Bank’s website www.canarabank.com. Candidates belonging to these categories are required to produce the certificates strictly in these formats only.

    12. An Ex-serviceman candidate has to produce a copy  of the discharge certificate / pension payment order and documentary proof of rank last / presently held (substantive as well as acting) at the time of interview. Those who are still in defence service should submit a certificate from a competent authority that they will be relieved from defence services, on or before 30.09.2010.
    13. Appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/her being declared medically fit as per the requirement of the Bank & receiving satisfactory report from referees and subject to service and conduct rules of the Bank.
    14. Any resultant dispute arising out of this advertisement shall be subject to the sole jurisdiction of the Courts situated in Bangalore.
    15. Canvassing in any form will be treated as disqualification.
    16. The Bank / IBPS shall not be responsible for an application being rejected which is based on wrong information provided in any advertisement issued by an unauthorized person / institution.
    17. In case any dispute arises on account of interpretation in versions other than English, English version will prevail.
    18. No candidate is permitted to use Calculator, Cell Phone, Pager or any other instruments in the examination hall.
Candidates in their own interest are advised to register on-line and submit their applications well in time before the last date, to avoid the possibility of dis-connection / inability / failure to log on the Bank’s website on account of heavy load on internet / website jam/ postal delay. The Bank does not assume any responsibility for the candidates not being able to submit their applications within the last date on account of the aforesaid reasons or for any other reasons beyond the control of the Bank.
Date : 23.08.2010                                                                        
Place: Bangalore

GENERAL MANAGER