Saturday, July 31, 2010

BANK OF BARODA PO EXAM RESULTS

Bank of Baroda (BOB) has published the results for its recruitment of 1200 Probationary Officers.The online applications were invited during the months of Mar - Apr 2010 & eligible candidates attended the written exam in the month of May 2010.
As part of this PO recruitment - Bank of Baroda conducted the written test on
May 30, 2010 for filling 1200 vacancies.Now the list of candidates, found provisionally eligible for interview has been released.More than 5000 candidates seem to have been shortlisted through the test.

Results : Download the results & read about the next stage from the bank website here. The list contains roll numbers of the selected candidates only.

Interview: According to the bank, the Interview for these selected candidates is expected to start anytime sooner & they will be sent call letter by post.They also mention that the exact date, time & venue are informed to those selected by Email, Post & SMS.

Thursday, July 29, 2010

SBI Clerks Recruitment 2009


SBI CLERKS EXAM - GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Which of the following States will soon have its first Civil Airports ?
(A) Jammu & Kashmir
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Meghalaya
(E) Sikkim
Ans : (E)

2. Who amongst the following made the 41st Test Century of his career recently ?
(A) Saurav Ganguly
(B) V. V. S. Laxman
(C) Rahul Dravid
(D) Sachin Tendulkar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following was/were the objective(s) of the Mission Chandrayaan 1 ?
(a) Preparing dimensional atlas of the lunar surface.
(b) Chemical Mapping of the entire lunar surface.
(c) Locating minerals in the soil of the moon.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following States introduced a high tech foodgrain rationing system to ensure timely supply of the foodgrains to people living below poverty line ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Delhi
(D) West Bengal
(E) Karnataka
Ans : (E)

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of India’s Money Market ?
(A) Bill Markets
(B) Call Money Market
(C) Banks
(D) Mutual Funds
(E) Indian Gold Council
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is the objective of the project ‘Bhoomi Keralam’ launched by the State Govt. ?
(A) To conduct a survey of the land
(B) To bring those people back who have left the State and settled in other States
(C) To provide financial security to farmers who are in distress
(D) To identify those tribals who need jobs or financial assistance
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Which of the following countries adopted its new constitution recently ?
(A) Russia
(B) Equadore
(C) South Korea
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. Which of the following awards was given to Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently (2008) ?
(A) Padma Bhushan
(B) Sangit Natak Academy Award
(C) Maharashtra Bhushan
(D) Karnataka Ratna
(E) Bharat Ratna
Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following States got its first Rail link recently ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Sikkim
(D) Manipur
(E) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans : (E)

10. Barack Hussain Obama belongs to which of the following political parties ?
(A) Republican
(B) Democratic
(C) Labour
(D) American National Congress
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are NOT the features of India’s Foreign Trade policy (2004 to 2009)?
(a) To double India’s percentage share of global trade from present 0·7 per cent to 1·5 per cent by 2009.
(b) Simplifying the procedures and bringing down the cost.
(c) Make SAARC countries India’s most preferred foreign trade partners by 2009.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) Only (a) & (c)
Ans : (C)

12. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the ……….
(A) President of Canada
(B) Prime Minister of Canada
(C) President of Italy
(D) Prime Minister of Switzerland
(E) Foreign Minister of U.S.A.
Ans : (B)

13. Which of the following is NOT a fertilizer product ?
(A) Urea
(B) Murate of Potash
(C) Di Amonium Phosphate
(D) Calcium Carbonate
(E) All are fertilizers
Ans : (E)

14. A Rs. 35,000 crore JSW Steel Plant project was inaugurated in West Bengal recently. The project is setup / developed in ……….
(A) Singur
(B) Nandigram
(C) Salboni
(D) Malda
(E) Joynagar
Ans : (C)

15. Which of the following State Govts. Has announced that it will provide a special package of incentives to Employment Intensive Industries ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Bihar
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following nations has decided to increase its co-operation in the field of energy with India ?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Nepal
(E) Japan
Ans : (A)

17. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the post offices in India ?
(A) Savings Bank Scheme
(B) Retailing of Mutual Funds
(C) Sale of stamp Papers (Judicial)
(D) Issuance of Demand Drafts
(E) Life Insurance cover
Ans : (D)

18. Mohammed Anni Nasheed is the newly elected President of ……….
(A) Fiji
(B) Maldives
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Who amongst the following is the winner of the Nobel Prize for Literature 2008 ?
(A) Jean Marie Gustave Le Clezio
(B) Martti Ahtisaari
(C) Yoichiro Nambu
(D) Francoise Barre Sinoussi
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

20. A national level commission of India has asked about twenty States to set up which of the following commissions in their States as early as possible ?
(A) Farmers Commission
(B) Women Commission
(C) Child Welfare Commission
(D) Law Commission
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is/are the measure(s) taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to ease the liquidity crunch in the country ?
(a) Cut in Cash Reserve Ratio and Statutory Liquidity Ratio.
(b) Increase the flow of foreign direct investment.
(c) Supply of additional currency notes in the market.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. The third India Brazil and South Africa (IBSA) Summit took place in which of the following dies recently ?
(A) Brazilia
(B) New Delhi
(C) Suncity
(D) Salvador
(E) Durban
Ans : (B)

23. Which of the following States has dcided to set up Arsenic Removal Plants in all the districts of the State to enable itself to provide arsenic free drinking water to all the people by 2010-11 ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Kerala
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa
(E) Maharashtra
Ans : (C)

24. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Exile’ ?
(A) B. G. Verghese
(B) Philip Roth
(C) Aravind Adiga
(D) Navtej Saran
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following programmes is being implemented in all the districts of the country ?
(A) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(B) Navodaya Vidhyalay
(C) Ultra Mega Power Project
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyuthikara Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

26. The Govt. of India decided to provide a bonus price of Rs. 50 per quintal on which of the following products over and above its minimum support price of Rs. 850 per quintal ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Paddy
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Cotton
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Namesake’ ?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Arun Bhagat
(D) Anita Desai
(E) Jhumpa Lahiri
Ans : (E)

28. Besides USA India has signed Nuclear Agreement with which of the following countries and is named as ‘Co-operation Agreement for Peaceful uses of Nuclear Energy’ ?
(A) Italy
(B) Germany
(C) France
(D) Canada
(E) Australia
Ans : (C)

29. Tzipi Livini whose name was in news recently is from which of the following countries ?
(A) Singapore
(B) South Korea
(C) Austria
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. World Ozone day is observed on ……….
(A) 16th September
(B) 16th October
(C) 16th November
(D) 26th September
(E) 26th October
Ans : (A)

31. Which of the following is NOT a Govt. Sponsored organization ?
(A) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(B) NABARD
(C) National Housing Bank
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) All are Govt. sponsored
Ans : (D)

32. ‘Merdeka Cup’ is associated with the game of ……….
(A) Badminton
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf
(E) Tennis
Ans : (B)

33. India’s Space Rocket Launching Centre is in ……….
(A) Portblair
(B) Hassan
(C) Tirupati
(D) Kochi
(E) Sri Harikota
Ans : (E)

34. The National Games scheduled in 2011 will be organized in ……….
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Goa
(C) Kolkata
(D) Kochi
(E) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

35. Which of the followiing diseases is not covered under Integrated Disease Surveillance project ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) AIDS
(D) Polio
(E) Cancer
Ans : (E)

36. Which of the following is TRUE about ‘Antyodaya Anna Yojana’ ?
(a) Scheme is for Below Poverty Line families.
(b) People are provided cooked meals under the scheme.
(c) All beneficiaries of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are covered in this scheme.
(A) Only (a)
(B) Only (b)
(C) Only (c)
(D) All (a), (b) & (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Jelena Jankovic of Serbia won which of the following titles of tennis after defeating Svetlana Kuznetsova ?
(A) China Open
(B) Japan Open
(C) New Zealand Open
(D) Australian Open
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. Who amongst the following is the Minister of Home Affairs in Union Cabinet of India at present ?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Lalu Prasad Yadav
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Sharad Pawar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

39. Banks are required to pay how much percentage of their net bank credit to Priority Sector is advance ?
(A) 5%
(B) 7%
(C) 10%
(D) 15%
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

40. Dronacharya Award is given for excellence in ……….
(A) Literacy Work
(B) Social Service
(C) Coaching in Sports
(D) Journalism
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

UCO BANK PO EXAM 2006

Solved paper of UCO Bank P.O. Exam. held on January 29, 2006

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions. For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports.
This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs.
However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.
1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector?
(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these

2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening

4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market
(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these
5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these
6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these

7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these
8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional
9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk
10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.
11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these
Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge

13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically

15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.
(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.
(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.

16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F
Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)

22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)
23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)
24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)
25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)
26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5)
27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5)
28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5)
29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)
30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5)
Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.
31. When do you intend to return back home?
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required

32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required

33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required

34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required

35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required

36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required

37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required

38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required

39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required

40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Required
Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.

41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through

42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing
43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want
44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance
45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited
47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively
48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past
49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular
50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

 

ANSWERS:-

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error

31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)

Wednesday, July 28, 2010

Central Bank Of India PO GK Paper-2010

1. India has an agreement with which country regarding distribution of Indus river water?
Ans : Pakistan
2. Which one of the following is an award given by UNO?
Ans: Kalinga Prize(UNESCO)
3. Which one of the following is associated with cricket?
Ans: No Ball
4. Which one of the following is a trophy associated with Hockey?
Ans: Rangaswamy cup.
5. Who won the Hockey world cup held in India this year?
Ans: Australia
6. Which one of the following is not related to Banking?
Ans: Radiation
7. The government has decided to provide new banking license. Which body in India issues license for banking?
Ans: RBI
8. Moorti Devi Award is given in the field of?
Ans: Literature
9. India recently applied for ___ billion SDR. SDR is associated with?
Ans: IMF
10. Surjit Patter is famous _____ poet?
Ans: Punjabi
11. Indira Gandhi Canal is in which state?
Ans: Rajasthan
12. What is the full form of NAV usually used by Mutual Fund companies?
Ans: Net Asset Value
13. What is RBI’s GDP growth prediction for the fiscal 2010-11?
Ans: 8%
14. 34th National Games will be held in which state?
Ans: Jharkhand
15. When is World Water Day celebrated?
Ans: 22nd March
16. Which of the following is used in nuclear reactor?
Ans: Uranium
17. Which company is not under defence ministry?
Ans: BHEL
18. India recently signed an agreement for supply of LNG with the country which is the largest producer of LNG in the world?
Ans: Qatar
19. Which one of the following is a not a missile developed by India?
Ans: Pinaka (is a rocket launcher)
20. Which country is not on the list of high industrial production countries?
Ans: IRAN
21. Who is the director of the movie”Oye Lucky Lucky Oye”?
Ans: Dipankar Banerjee
22. USA recently passed a resolution for protection of nuclear assets throughout the world. Which one of the following is an step taken by US in this regard?
Ans: Organized a nuclear security summit
23. The insurance by banks is better known as?
Ans: Bankassurance
24. Which one of the following is not related to finance?
Ans: Convergence(Don’t know exactly)
25. Sandra bullock has been awarded with Oscar in which category?
Ans: Best Actress.
26. RBI recently hiked the CRR by 25 basis point ?What will be the effect?
Ans: Banks have to deposit more money with RBI
27. ADAG companies were in news recently for making good profits. ADAG companies is better known as?
Ans: Reliance Companies
28. Other than CO2 which gas found in water has become a threat to living beings?
Ans: Methane(found in sea and marshy areas)
29. Ajit Wadekar has been recently honored with?
Ans: None of these
30. Who is the head of 19th Law Commission?
Ans: PV Reddy
31. What is the definition of Mutual fund?
Ans: ?
32. Who is the writer of SOLE?
Ans: Rana Gupta
33. In ONGC OPL….OPL stands for?
Ans: Oil Prospecting License
34. Vinda Karindakar is a famous personality in the field of?
Ans: Literature
35. Commonwealth Games will be held in which country this year?
Ans: India
36. Plain vanilla currency option is associated with which instrument?
Ans: Forex(Don’t know exactly)
37. India recently decided to soften the FDI norms? Which body in India is the regulatory body for FDI?
Ans: Finance Ministry (Not sure??)
38. Who won the National Women’s Football Cup 2010?
Ans: ?
39. What is the effect of increase in Repo Rate?
Ans:?

Canara Bank PO (General Awareness) 2010


1. Term used in Hockey – Penalty Stroke.
2. Inflation in 2009-10 – ?
3. India Bangladesh hydel power plant where – Khulna.
4. GDP – Gross Domestic Product.
5. 2012 Summer Olympics will be held in – London.
6. Earth Day– April 22nd.
7. NBFC – None(Non banking finance company)
8. India Palestine related – West Asia conflict.
9. Bear and Bulls related to – Stock Market.
10. Special Drawing Rights issued by – IMF.
11. Repo Rate – None(5.25 %)
12. Economic Survey 2010 was done for the year - 2009-10.
13. Which country facing Crisis in Europe – Greece.
14. Women’s Reservation in state assemblies – 33%.
15. Base rate will be implemented from – July 2010.
16. Scheme related to Rural Health Scheme – NHRM.
17. Who is not related to famous author – M F Hussain.
18. South Africa Currency – None(Rand)
19. WADI in West Bengal - Tribal Development programme.
20. Chairman of 13th finance commission – Vijay Kelkar.
21. Player associated with women’s cricket – Mithali Raj.
22. India and Saudi Arabia signed pacts in – Energy Sector.
23. Which country does not play International cricket – China.
24. First woman president of Costa Rica - Laura Chinchilla.
25. Government has granted 12000 crore to – None(1200 crore for Bundelkhand)
26. Victor Yankovych has been elected as – President of Ukraine.
27. Basic banking services to rural people termed as - Financial Inclusion.
28. To which country India has given $1 billion– Bangladesh.
29. Teams played in IPL final – None(Chennai Super Kings, Mumbai Indians)
30. Which of the following is not related to banking and finance – Cell fusion.
31. Which country has reservation in parliament for women like India – France.
32. Who presented the Union budget 2010-11 in parliament – None (Pranab Mukherjee)
33. Recently which country celebrated 149th birth anniversary of Rabindranath Tagore – China.
34. Which of the following award is not given in the field of literature - Arjuna Awards.
35. Which country objected the meeting between Dalai Lama and Barack Obama – China.
36. Which of the following told government must cut its fiscal deficit to 3% - 13th Finance Commission.
37. Ela Bhatt chosen for Niwano Peace Prize, she is associated with – SEWA.
38. Which of the following is a book written by R K Narayan – The World of Nagaraj.
39. Who won the best male actor in 55th Film fare awards – Amitabh Bachchan.
40. The details of the companies financial position in the annual report of a company is known as – balance sheet.
41. Meaning of roll back of Stimulus Package
42. GoI recently passed a bill for providing Fundamental Education to children of age group 6-14 years – Right to Education
43. A question whose answer was SEBI
44. Which of the following cup is not related to Cricket – Scindia Gold Cup.
45. Which of the following is true with respect to Union Budget 2010-11- 25000 from Disinvestment and 37% allocation to Social Sector

I.D.B.I. Bank Officers Cadre Exam


Solved Question Paper of I.D.B.I. Bank Officers Cadre Exam Held on 3rd October 2008.


1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SHOULDER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Brick
(B) Cement
(C) Sand
(D) Mortar
(E) Wall
3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, using each letter once in each word, which of the following is the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
(A) L
(B) E
(C) S
(D) X
(E) Y
4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Methane
(D) Neon
(E) Helium
5. In a certain code BREAKING is written as BFSCFMHJ. How is MOTHERLY written in that code ?
(A) IUPNZMSF
(B) IUPNXKQD
(C) IUPNFSMZ
(D) GSNLZMSF
(E) None of these
6. Among P, Q, R, S and T each having a different height, Q is taller than S. T is shorter than P. R is taller than Q but shorter than T. Who among them is the tallest ?
(A) S
(B) P
(C) R
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
7. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother’s birthday is before 16th but after 13th August whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother’s birthday is after 14th but before 18th August. On which day in August was their mother’s birthday definitely ?
(A) 15th
(B) 14th
(C) 14th or 15th
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
8. In a certain code BEND is written as ‘5%3#’ and NIGHT is written as ‘3@©64’. How is DEBT written in that code ?
(A) #%©4
(B) #@54
(C) #%34
(D) #%54
(E) None of these
9. How many such digits are there in the number 5834619 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
10. If the positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 85231467 are interchanged, similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on, which of the following will be the second digit from the right end after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 1
(E) None of these
Answers of (1-10 Questions):
1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (E) 4. (C) 5. (B),6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–16) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements :
All drums are tubes.
Some tubes are pipes.
No pipe is stick.
Some sticks are rubbers.
Conclusions :
I. Some rubbers are tubes.
II. Some sticks are drums.
III. Some pipes are drums.
IV. Some sticks are tubes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) Only III follows
12. Statements :
Some pens are rooms.
All rooms are walls.
Some walls are bricks.
All bricks are slates.
Conclusions :
I. Some slates are walls.
II. Some walls are pens.
III. Some bricks are rooms
IV. Some slates are rooms.
(A) Only I and III follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and II follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
13. Statements :
Some chairs are pencils.
Some pencils are bottles.
Some bottles are bags.
Some bags are books.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. No book is pencil.
IV. Some bags are chairs.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only either I or III follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only IV follows
(E) None of these
14. Statements :
Some roads are buses.
All buses are trains.
Some trains are trucks.
All trucks are kites.
Conclusions :
I. Some trucks are roads.
II. Some kites are buses.
III. Some trains are roads.
IV. Some kites are trains.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these
15. Statements :
All beads are rings.
All rings are bangles.
All bangles are tyres.
All tyres are pendants.
Conclusions :
I. Some pendants are beads.
II. Some tyres are rings.
III. Some bangles are beads.
IV. Some pendants are rings.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I, II and III follow
(C) Only II, III and IV follow
(D) Only I, III and IV follow
(E) All follow
16. Statements :
Some desks are fruits.
All fruits are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions :
I. Some roots are flowers.
II. No desk is branch.
III. Some flowers are desks.
IV. Some branches are desks.
(A) Only either II or IV follows
(B) Only III follows
(C) Only either II or IV and III follow
(D) Only III and IV follow
(E) None of these
Answers from 11 to 16 are as follows:

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (E) 15. (E),16. (C)

Directions—
(Q. 17–22) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below—
R 4 P I J M Q 3 % T @ © U K 5 V 1 W $ Y 2 B E 6 # 9 D H 8 G * Z N
17. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the above arrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) #
(C) %
(D) $
(E) None of these
18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
19. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
20. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
21. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
P J Q T © K 1 $ 2 ?
(A) E # D
(B) 6 9 D
(C) 6 9 8
(D) 6 # D
(E) None of these
22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) W Y 1
(B) Q % M
(C) © K @
(D) 9 H 6
(E) G Z 8
Answers from 17 to 22:

17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A),21. (E) 22. (D)
Directions—(Q. 23–28) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a club. Each of them has a favourite sport from-Chess, Table Tennis, Lawn Tennis, Volleyball, Badminton, Basketball and Carrom, not necessarily in the same order.
Each of them also has a specific choice of colour from—Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Grey, Black and White, not necessarily in the same order.
R likes Green and his favourite sport is Badminton. V’s choice of colour is neither Red nor Black. T’s favourite sport is neither Table Tennis nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not like Carrom. The one who likes Volleyball does not like Yellow and Grey. Q’s favourite sport is Lawn Tennis and he likes Black. S likes White. W likes Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one who likes Basketball does not like Grey.
23. What is V’s choice of colour ?
(A) Black
(B) Grey
(C) Yellow
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
24. What is T’s favourite sport ?
(A) Basketball
(B) Volleyball
(C) Chess
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
25. Whose favourite sport is Carrom?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) W
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
26. Whose favourite sport is basketball ?
(A) S
(B) T
(C) W
(D) R
(E) Data inadequate
27. What is W’s choice of colour ?
(A) Green
(B) White
(C) Black
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
28. Which of the following combinations of sport and colour is correct ?
(A) Table Tennis, Yellow
(B) Volleyball, Red
(C) Volleyball, Grey
(D) Chess, Black
(E) Carrom, Green
Answers from 23 to 28 are as follows:

23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (D),26. (C) 27. (E) 28. (B)

Directions—(Q. 29–34) In each question below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/symbols lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following coding system. If none of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters, give answer (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letter :
R K A D E M W T I V U B F H P
Digit/Symbol :
2 δ 3 * 1 8 # 4 $ 5 © 9 6 @ 7
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ‘?’.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out the coded form of the letter groups given in each question.
29. AMPERI
(A) 38712$
(B) $87123
(C) 387123
(D) 37812$
(E) None of these
30. RTVUBH
(A) 245©9@
(B) @45©92
(C) @45©9@
(D) ?45©9?
(E) None of these
31. BEFKMA
(A) 916δ83
(B) ?16δ8?
(C) 316δ89
(D) 316δ83
(E) None of these
32. EWPKIH
(A) 1#7δ$@
(B) ?#7δ$?
(C) 17#δ$@
(D) @#7δ$1
(E) None of these
33. RTDAVB
(A) 94*352
(B) 24*352
(C) ?4*35?
(D) 24*359
(E) None of these
34. HEUPKI
(A) @1©7δ$
(B) $1©7δ$
(C) @1©7δ@
(D) ?1©7δ?
(E) None of these
Answers from 29 to 34 are as follows
29. (A) 30. (C),31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (E) 34. (D) .
Directions—(Q. 35–40) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, δ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P δ Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ? Give answer—
(A) If only Conclusion I is true
(B) If only Conclusion II is true
(C) If either Conclusion I or II is true
(D) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
(E) If both Conclusions I and II are true
35. Statements :
R © T, T @ M, M δ D
Conclusions : I. D # T
II. M # T
36. Statements :
B @ N, N % R, R © F
Conclusions : I. B @ F
II. N # F
37. Statements :
D # T, T @ R, R © M
Conclusions : I. M # D
II. M # T
38. Statements :
K δ H, H % F, F # J
Conclusions : I. F © K
II. J © H
39. Statements :
W @ G, N © G, N % V
Conclusions : I. W @ N
II. V © G
40. Statements :
T © Y, Y % M, M @ R
Conclusions : I. R # Y
II. T δ M
Answers from 35 to 40 are as follows
35. (E),36. (D) 37. (B) 38. (A) 39. (B) 40. (D)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions—
a, b, c, d, e and f are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. f is third to the right of b who is second to the right of e. c is third to the left of e. a is not an immediate neighbour of f.
41. Who is to the immediate right of f ?
(A) c
(B) d
(C) e
(D) b
(E) None of these
42. Who is to the immediate left of c ?
(A) b
(B) f
(C) b or f
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
43. Who is second to the right of c ?
(A) a
(B) e
(C) d
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
44. Who is to the immediate right of a ?
(A) e
(B) d
(C) c
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
45. Who are the immediate neighbours of e ?
(A) ab
(B) df
(C) bd
(D) af
(E) None of these
Answers from 41 to 45 are as folows
41. (C) 42. (A) 43. (E) 44. (E) 45. (D)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer—
(A) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(B) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
(C) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
(D) If the data given in both the statements I & II together are not sufficient to answer the question, and
(E) If the data in both the statements I & II together are necessary to answer the question.
46. How many daughters does M have ?
I. N and P are sisters of K.
II. M is father of K.
47. On which day of the week did Mohan visit temple ?
I. Mohan visited the temple one day after his sister’s visit to temple.
II. Mohan’s sister visited the temple before Sunday.
48. What does ‘ja’ mean in a code language ?
I. ‘ja pa na’ means ‘go home now’ in that code language.
II. ‘na da ta’ means ‘come back home’ in that code language.
49. Among M, N, T, P and R each having different weight, who is the heaviest ?
I. T is heavier than P and M but lighter than N who is not the heaviest.
II. M is lighter than P.
50. How is D related to T ?
I. D’s brother is father of T’s sister.
II. T’s brother is son of D’s brother.

Answers from 46 to 50

46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D).

Friday, July 23, 2010

Reserve Bank of India Executive Intern 200 Posts Recruitment


Reserve Bank of India (RBI), fully owned by the Government of India supervises the operations of banks & financial organizations.RBI has over 22 regional offices across India.Reserve Bank of India is recruiting for
200 Executive Intern posts.

Dates : Last date for online application registration: 23.08.2010 
Last date for sending postal applications: 30.08.2010 
Date of written exam – 24.10.2010

Post – Vacancies – Payscale:
Executive Interns (contact basis) – 200 posts – Rs.50000 /year



Eligibility: Those interested to apply for jobs in Reserve bank of India,
* Bachelor`s degree with min.60% (1st class) as on 1.7.2010
* Should be within 21 – 30 yrs of age, as on 1.7.2010
* Must have completed certificate course in information technology (computers )

Selection : The Selection process will be based on Written test & Interview for Executive Interns recruitment.The 3 hrs objective test is for 200 marks & consists of 1) General Awareness 2) English Language 3) Quantitative Aptitude 4) Reasoning.Those securing the qualifying cut-off marks will be shortlisted & called for Interview.

Application (no fee for SC/ST/PWD): The application fee of Rs.100 via DD /PO favoring Reserve bank of India has to be drawn & payable at Mumbai.Candidates can apply online through onlinedr.rbi.org.in & send the printout along with DD OR fill the application form as given on the website to submit through post.

Refer : Candidates can read more about AAI job recruitment 2010 & apply online through their website here 

Thursday, July 22, 2010

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK CLERKS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 04-04-2010

PUNJAB NATIONAL BANK CLERKS EXAM SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE

SOUTH INDIAN BANK PRO.MANAGERS (CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS) RECRUITMENT

South indian Bank Recruitment of Probationary Managers (Chartered Accountants) – Scale II
South Indian Bank provides the right opportunities for the young, ambitious and talented to flourish. We are sure that working in this prestigious organization will provide you immense job satisfaction, while ensuring that your dream of an ambitious career is achieved. Watch this space for positions in our bank.
Applications are invited from Indian nationals for the post of PRO.MANAGERS (CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS, Middle Management Grade – Scale II)
Vacancy details:
No. of vacancies : 20
Minimum Qualification : ACA
Experience : Desirable
Age : Not more than 28 years as on 30.06.2010.
Probation : 1 year
Total Emoluments at initial stage : Approx. Rs. 5.5 Lakhs per annum.
Mode of selection : Group Discussion and Interview
GENERAL CONDITIONS
1.Neatly typewritten application with Passport-size photograph pasted thereon should be accompanied by self attested copies of mark lists and certificates to prove the age and qualifications. Application should be sent by Ordinary Post only.
2.A write up in 300 words “Why I consider myself suitable for appointment in South Indian Bank Ltd.”, in candidate’s own handwriting, should be submitted along with application.
3.Upper age limit will be relaxed by five years, only in the case of SC/ST candidates.
4.Candidates belonging to SC/ST should submit attested copies of certificates from a competent authority to prove their status in this regard.
5.Candidates are advised to retain two copies of the same photograph which was used in the application, for use at the time of interview.
6.Mere eligibility will not vest any right on the candidate for being called for interview. In matters regarding eligibility and selection, Bank’s decision will be final and no correspondence will be entertained.
7.Canvassing in any form will be a disqualification.
8.Please super scribe the envelope containing the application “APPLICATION FOR THE POST OF CHARTERED ACCOUNTANTS” and send to GENERAL MANAGER (ADMINISTRATION), THE SOUTH INDIAN BANK LTD, SIB HOUSE, MISSION QUARTERS, THRISSUR – 680 001,KERALA so as to reach on or before 04.08.2010.
9.Application not fulfilling any of the above will be rejected. If the information furnished by the candidate is found to be false at later date, the selection / appointment shall be liable for termination.
For Application Form & details click here Application Form
For official website click here  http://www.southindianbank.com/

Allahabad Bank Probationary Officer Exam., 2010

General Awareness : Solved Paper
(Held on 21-2-2010)
1. As we all know banks publish their quarterly performance to bring transparency in the system and also to give a clear picture of their performance to the public. How were results of Quarter 2 different from the results of Quarter 1 of the listed banks including giants like SBI and ICICI banks ?
1. Performance was subdued in the Quarter 2.
2. Yields on advances of almost all listed banks have come down.
3. Advances grew at a slower pace when compared to deposits.
(A) Only 1 is true
(B) Only 2 is true
(C) Only 3 is true
(D) All 1, 2 and 3 are true
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

2. After the Subprime crisis which of the following problems has hit the global economy/world markets recently ?
(A) Dubai debt problem
(B) Change of Government in Japan and its new economic policies
(C) High rate of inflation in India
(D) Extremely volatile behaviour of the Bombay Stock Exchange and other major Stock Exchanges world wide
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. As per the news published in major newspapers in India Banks in India need about 12 lakh business correspondents for rural areas. What will be the role of these correspondents ?
1. They will help rural people in their day-to-day banking activities.
2. They will work as a link between banks and the customers.
3. They will ascertain eligibility of rural people so that relief packages can be provided to them.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. It is evident that the economic slowdown still continues to weigh on the performance of the banks in India. How is this affecting banks and/or general public ?
(A) The number of bank account holders has gone down
(B) The gross Non-Proforming Assets (NPAs) of the listed banks have increased substantially
(C) Inflation has reached at a very high level
(D) Relief packages announced by the Govt. have proved insufficient to improve the situation of agri sector
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)

5. Why has Dr. Subir Gokarn’s name been in the news recently ?
(A) He has taken over as the Governor of the RBI
(B) He has taken over as the Deputy Governor of the RBI
(C) He will be the new Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India
(D) He has taken over as the Chief of the Economic Advisory Council attached to Prime Minister’s Office
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

6. As published in various newspaper, the Experian Credit Information Company of India is going to launch its operation in India soon. At present the only credit information bureau functional in India is—
(A) AMFI
(B) ICRA
(C) CIBIL
(D) CRISIL
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. As per the news published in a financial publication RBI is redesigning its ‘ECS’ to function as a Automated Clearing House (ACH) for bulk transactions. What is full form of ‘ECS’ ?
(A) Extra Closing System
(B) Electronic Cheque System
(C) Evening Cheque Sorter
(D) Evening Cheque System
(E) Electronic Clearing Service
Ans : (E)

8. Which of the following challenges will be the most crucial for human existence on earth in the days to come ?
(A) Pollution
(B) Food Security
(C) Availability of natural gas
(D) Need for Financial Inclusion
(E) Cyber Crimes
Ans : (A)

9. The Reserve Bank of India has asked all the banks to install ‘Note Sorting Machines’ in the branches. How will this help banks and the general public ?
1. The machines will check for counterfeit notes and drop these from circulation.
2. This will help banks to count the notes quickly and accurately.
3. This will help in sorting out soiled notes so that they are not reissued by the banks.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. A study report entitled ‘India Generation Gap Review’ was presented at the World Economic Forum in November 2009. This was presented during which of the following summits/conferences ?
(A) G-8 Summit
(B) G-20 Summit
(C) India Economic Summit
(D) SAARC Finance Ministers’ Conference
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


11. As we know the Government of India has notified certain new rules to calculate Income Tax on various perks like accommodation, and conveyance etc. being given by employers to their salaried employees. The new rules will replace which of the following taxes which has been abolished now ?
(A) Capital Gains Tax
(B) Sales Tax
(C) Cash Transaction Tax
(D) Fringe Benefit Tax
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

12. Dr. K. Radhakrishnan has taken over as the Chief of—
(A) Electronics Commission
(B) Indian Space Research Organisation
(C) Atomic Energy Commission of India
(D) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. As per the guidelines issued by the RBI, banks are preparing for a service which will allow customers to withdraw upto Rs. 1,000 using their debit cards from notified shops/stores all over the country. All such shops/stores will have ‘POS’ terminals for the same. What is full form of the ‘POS’ ?
(A) Payment on Sale
(B) Power of Sale
(C) Point of Sale
(D) Payment Order Service
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. The working group set up by the RBI has suggested the launch of an Emergency Fund Facility Scheme for banks. This scheme will help which of the following types of banks ?
(A) Public Sector Banks
(B) Small Banks
(C) Urban Cooperative Banks
(D) Private Banks
(E) Foreign Banks
Ans : (C)

15. As published in major newspapers public sector banks have asked the Government of India to provide more funds for ‘Capital Infusion’. How much is the need of PSBs collectively for the purpose ? (Rs. in crores)
(A) Rs. 10,000
(B) Rs. 15,000
(C) Rs. 20,000
(D) Rs. 25,000
(E) Rs. 30,000
Ans : (B)

16. Who amongst the following has purchased about 200 tonnes of gold from International Monetary Fund (IMF) in 2009 ?
(A) Infrastructure Finance Company Ltd.
(B) Bombay Stock Exchange of India
(C) Gold Council of India
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

17. One of the major emphasis of Basel II is that banks should have—
(A) adequate Capital Adequacy Ratio
(B) only few branches in urban centres
(C) more and more branches in rural areas
(D) core banking mode of operation
(E) all the above to comply with Base II norms
Ans : (A)

18. As per the reports published by various agencies/organizations, it is estimated that around 3 billion extra people will join our existing population of 6 billion by the year-2050. To provide food for all of them, a second round of which of the following initiatives is required to be started much in advance ?
(A) Green Revolution
(B) Planned Urbanisation
(C) Industrialisation
(D) Climate Migration
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

19. Who amongst the following is the President of the European Union at present ?
(A) Catherine Ashton
(B) Mr. Jose Manuel Barroso
(C) Mr. Fredrik Reinfeldt
(D) Mr. Sergi Lavrov
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. As per the reports published in various newspapers and journals almost all big nations are trying their best to resolve various disputes between the nations wherein either they are a party or because of that their peace and stability may be affected. Stability in which of the following two nations is more vital to India than that of any other nations ?
(A) Bangladesh and China
(B) China and USA
(C) Iraq and Russia
(D) South and North Korea
(E) Pakistan and Afghanistan
Ans : (E)

21. India’s bilateral per annum trade with European Union at present is about
(A) 50 billion US $
(B) 75 billion US $
(C) 100 billion US $
(D) 150 billion US $
(E) 200 billion US $
Ans : (C)

22. Some world bodies/organisations/agencies are of the view that agriculture should adopt a ‘Cross Disciplinary Approach’, and take help of all types of sciences and studies. This approach will help in which of the following crucial problems being faced by humanity ?
(A) Use of Genetically Modified Crop
(B) Melting of glaciers
(C) Food crisis
(D) Climate change
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. An agreement between two nations or a group of nations which establishes unimpeded exchange and flow of goods and services between/among trade partners regardless of national boundaries is called—
(A) Import Free Agreement
(B) Free Trade Agreement
(C) Export Free Agreement
(D) Special Economic Zone Agreement
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. Which of the following correctly describe what ‘One Carbon Credit’ is ?
1. Credit permit to release one ton of carbon dioxide.
2. Providing loans to establish one new production unit which can produce carbon dioxide for industrial use.
3. Finding out one new business which can use and recycle green house gases.
(A) Only 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. As per various reports issued by the UNO and other world bodies, agricultural and allied activities consume what percentage of global water resources every year ? About
(A) 15 per cent
(B) 30 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 70 per cent
(E) 60 per cent
Ans : (B)

26. The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) is a wing/agency of the—
(A) World Bank
(B) United Nations Organisation
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Ministry of Agriculture Govt. of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. As a policy, India does not encourage free movement of unskilled labours from—
(A) Gulf Countries
(B) USA and South American Nations
(C) European Union Nations
(D) All these nations
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. The Government of India has decided to disinvest its share in major public sector undertakings. How much of its share will be offloaded in this method ?
(A) 2 per cent
(B) 4 per cent
(C) 8 per cent
(D) 10 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

29. The United Nations Development Fund for Women (UNIFEM) is working in an Indian city to make it safe for women. Which of the following is that city ?
(A) Pune
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Mumbai
(E) Lucknow
Ans : (C)

30. At present the trade between India and China is in a state of ‘Payment imbalance’. What does this mean in real terms ?
1. China does not import many items from India whereas India imports more from China.
2. China does not pay India in time and a lot of delay is reported by the exporters.
3. India wants all payments to be made in US Dollars whereas China pays in its own currency.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

31. India has signed an agreement on climate change with which of the following countries recently ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) United Kingdom
(D) Australia
(E) China
Ans : (E)

32. Some Scientists are of the opinion that extra agricultural production should be achieved without going for the cultivation of extra land and also without causing damage to essential eco-system. This concept, in other words, is known as—
(A) Sustainable growth
(B) Renewability of inputs
(C) Global Melt down
(D) Climate Migration
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

33. Mr. Z. E. A. Ben Ali has taken over as the President of—
(A) Tunisia
(B) Malaysia
(C) Indonesia
(D) Kuwait
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which of the following is not a Government of India undertaking ?
(A) Oil India Ltd.
(B) Sutlej Jal Vidyut Nigam Ltd.
(C) ICICI Bank
(D) National Thermal Power Corporation Ltd.
(E) Rural Electrification Corporation Ltd.
Ans : (C)

35. India shares its border with China along the Himalayan range. Which of the folllowing states touches the border of China ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Bihar
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following has been the growth of India’s GDP during 2008-09 ? (Final data are issued in late 2009)
(A) 5 per cent
(B) 5•5 per cent
(C) 6 per cent
(D) 6•5 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

37. Which of the following ministries had launched a new ‘Skill Development Initiative Scheme’ so that the employability of the young people can be increased ?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) Ministry of Agriculture
(C) Ministry of Heavy Industry
(D) Ministry of Home Affairs
(E) Ministry of Labour and Employment
Ans : (E)

38. Sachin Tendulkar has recently become the first cricketer in ODI history to cross the milestone of—
(A) 10000 runs
(B) 12000 runs
(C) 15000 runs
(D) 17000 runs
(E) 20000 runs
Ans : (D)

39. The East Asia Summit took place in October 2009 in Hua Hin town. This is a town in—
(A) China
(B) Myanmar
(C) Cambodia
(D) Malaysia
(E) Thailand
Ans : (A)

40. What per cent of India’s GDP is invested in providing education ?
(A) 1 per cent
(B) 2•5 per cent
(C) 4 per cent
(D) 6 per cent
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

41. India has recently gained the status of becoming the third largest producer of Steel in the world. Who is the largest producer ?
(A) USA
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) China
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

42. ‘Dadaab Refugee Camp’ which was in the news recently is located in which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Iraq
(C) Pakistan
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Kenya
Ans : (E)

43. Which of the following countries objected to the Indian Prime Minister’s recent visit to Arunachal Pradesh ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) Nepal
(C) Myanmar
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

44. Which of the following not associated with climate change and/or Global Warming ?
(A) Basel Norms
(B) Bali Meet 2007
(C) Copenhagen Conference
(D) Kyoto Protocol
(E) Bangkok Meet in 2009
Ans : (A)

45. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Hockey ?
(A) Baseline
(B) Smash
(C) Drop
(D) Centre Forward
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

46. Which of the following Genetically Modified vegetables is recently being made available in India markets ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Brinjal
(D) Potato
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. Each Nobel Prize winner gets an amount of 10 million Swedish—
(A) Kroner
(B) Dollar
(C) Yen
(D) Pound
(E) Euro
Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following not a plant product ?
(A) Camphor
(B) Aloe vera
(C) Vanilla
(D) Kiwi
(E) All are plant products
Ans : (E)

49. Dr. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan is one of the recipients of the Nobel Prize in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Economics
(E) Literature
Ans : (B)

50. As per the reports published in newspapers the Govt. of India has asked all the states to conduct a ‘Social Audit’ of each and every work of which of the following schemes ?
(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) Indira Aawas Yojana
(D) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

51. Which of the following is not the name of a major Lawn Tennis Tournament ?
(A) US Open
(B) Wimbledon
(C) French Open
(D) Grand Master
(E) Australian Open
Ans : (D)

52. ‘Derby’ is associated with which of the following sports events ?
(A) Horse Racing
(B) Chess
(C) Cricket
(D) Hockey
(E) Football
Ans : (A)

53. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking and Finance ?
(A) Bid Price
(B) Jacksonian Seizure
(C) Call Option
(D) Bluechip
(E) Dividend
Ans : (B)

54. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for the exemplary work in the field of …………
(A) Literature
(B) Music
(C) Films
(D) Sports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

55. Who amongst the following is the Chief Justice of India at present ?
(A) Justice R. C. Lahoti
(B) Justice V. K. Sabharwal
(C) Justice G. P. Mathur
(D) Justice K. G. Balakrishnan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

56. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Exogenous
(B) Depreciation
(C) Deep Market
(D) Zero Sum Game
(E) Handedness
Ans : (A)

57. Who amongst the following is not a Lawn Tennis player ?
(A) Cara Black
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Leander Paes
(E) Anand Pawar
Ans : (E)

58. Which of the following books is written by V. S. Naipaul ?
(A) A Woman Alone
(B) The Open Couple
(C) The Grass is Singing
(D) The Golden Notebook
(E) Half a Life
Ans : (E)

59. Sri Balraj Puri, who was in the news recently, is a famous …….
(A) Classical Singer
(B) Cine Actor
(C) Social Worker
(D) Sportsman
(E) Journalist
Ans : (E)

60. Which of the following is caused by H5N1 virus ?
(A) Yellow fever
(B) Measles
(C) Plague
(D) Bird flu
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

61. Which of the following rivers is not in India ?
(A) Tapti
(B) Ural
(C) Mahi
(D) Mahanadi
(E) Penner
Ans : (B)

62. Mr. Mohamed Nasheed was on a five day state visit to India recently. He is the President of—
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Iran
(C) Indonesia
(D) Maldives
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

63. India celebrated which of the following Birth Anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi in October 2009 ?
(A) 110
(B) 120
(C) 130
(D) 140
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following states has launched e-Shakti Programme so that poverty can be reduced in the state ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

65. Which of the following schemes is launched by the Government of India to improve the health of pregnant and lactating mothers ?
(A) Matritva Sahayog Yojana
(B) Dhan Lakshmi Yojana
(C) ASHA
(D) Health for All Scheme
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

66. As per the decision taken by the Orissa Cabinet the new name of the state would be written as—
(A) Odisha
(B) Orissha
(C) Aurissa
(D) Horissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

67. India recently organized sixth ministerial level of Indo-US-TPF. What is fullform of TPF ?
(A) Trade Policy Forum
(B) Traditional Planning Force
(C) Trade and Payment Finance
(D) Technical Planning Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

68. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of state level agency on afforestation created by the Government of India ?
(A) NDMA
(B) SFDA
(C) ICMJE
(D) ICCROM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

69. Which of the following states has launched ‘Atta-Dal Scheme’ under which atta and dal will be supplied at affordable prices to ration card holders ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Orissa
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

70. Which of the following states has the maximum number of Sugar mills ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

71. India purchased the Break Anti Missile Defence System from—
(A) USA
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Israel
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

72. Mullaperiyar Dam is built on which of the following rivers ?
(A) Pamba
(B) Godavari
(C) Krishna
(D) Cauvery
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

73. Which of the following countries won the Champions Trophy Cricket Tournament 2009 ?
(A) England
(B) Pakistan
(C) Australia
(D) New Zealand
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

74. Who amongst the following has been nominated for Man Booker Prize–2009 ?
(A) J. M. Coetzee
(B) Hilary Mantel
(C) Sarah Waters
(D) Thomas Cromwell
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

75. Shantiswarup Bhatnagar Awards are given for excellence in the field of—
(A) Sports
(B) Economics
(C) Science and Technology
(D) Cinema
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Tuesday, July 20, 2010

BANK OF INDIA CLERKS 2467 POSTS RECRUITMENT


CLERICAL RECRUITMENT PROJECT 2010/11
NOTICE DATED 12.07.2010

BANK OF INDIA, a leading Public Sector Bank having Head Office in Mumbai
invites applications for recruitment of 2467 posts in CLERICAL CADRE.

For Challan – Click appropriate Button and after making Fee Payment
(For other than SC/ST / PWD & Ex-Servicemen candidates) click ‘Apply On line’
for application provided at the end of the Advertisement / Notice – Page 16.

Challan available from 16/07/2010
Submission of On-line application commencing on 16/07/2010
Last date for submission of On-line application 05/08/2010
Payment of Application Fee (Other than SC/ST/PWD/EXS) 16/07/2010 – 05/08/2010
Relevant Date for Age, Qualification & Eligibility 30/06/2010
Tentative Date of Written Examination 26/09/2010[ SUNDAY ]

1. NAME OF THE POST:
POST AGE (As on 30/06/2010) Emoluments
CLERICAL CADRE
Minimum age : 18 years &
Maximum age: 28 years
(Applicant’s Date of Birth should not be prior to 01/07/1982 & after 30/06/1992. Also refer Para ‘4’ for relaxation of age. Basic Pay in Time Scale of Rs.7200 - Rs.19300 + DA, HRA, CCA, Conveyance Allowance. Gratuity, Pension, LFC, Medical Aid etc. as per the Industry Level Settlement & Other facilities as per Bank’s Rules.

VACANCY POSITION:
STATE CODE
STATE /UNION TERRITORY
TOTAL
SC
ST
OBC
GEN
(UR)
OUT OF WHICH
VC
HI
OC
XSM
11
Andhra Pradesh
130
20
12
34
64
1
1
1
18
12
Bihar
184
29
2
49
104
2
2
2
26
13
Chandigarh (U.T.)
20
4
-
5
11
-
-
-
03
14
Chhattisgarh
34
6
18
1
9
-
-
-
02
15
Delhi
193
28
20
50
95
2
2
2
27
16
Goa
34
0
22
1
11
-
-
-
01
17
Gujarat
84
2
62
6
14
-
-
-
03
18
Haryana
50
10
0
14
26
1
1
1
07
20
Jharkhand
290
33
81
33
143
3
3
3
40
21
Jammu & Kashmir
1

1






22
Karnataka
110
21
15
25
49
1
1
1
13
24
Madhya Pradesh
329
40
120
39
130
3
3
3
38
25
Maharashtra
363
16
220
42
85
2
2
2
23
26
Orissa
116
17
33
13
53
1
1
1
15
27
Puducherry (U.T.)
1



1




28
Punjab
45
13
0
09
23
-
-
-
07
29
Rajasthan
47
08
06
09
24
-
-
-
07
30
Tamilnadu
18
02
0
03
13
-
-
-
02
31
West Bengal
13
0
05
0
8
-
-
-
-
32
Assam
3
01
02
0
0
-
-
-
-
33
Tripura
2
0
01
0
01
-
-
-
-
34
Meghalaya
2
0
02
0
0
-
-
-
-
36
Uttar Pradesh
366
76
04
98
188
4
4
4
53
37
Uttarkhand
32
06
01
04
21
-
-
-
05

TOTAL
2467
332
627
435
1073
20
20
20
290
            * Includes  :  SC –12; ST –417;  OBC –Nil  Backlog Vacancies


Candidate belonging to reserved categories including Persons with Disabilities and Ex-Servicemen, for which no reservation has been announced, are free to apply for vacancies announced for unreserved category, however, they must fulfill all the eligibility conditions of unreserved category.                   
                                                                 
The recruitment will be state-wise / union territory-wise   as indicated above. A candidate can apply for a vacancy in only one state / union  territory and should be willing to be initially posted at any place in  that state / Union Territory . Further, he / she will have to appear for the written test from an examination centre specified for that particular state / Union Territory only, as indicated in Para. No.9 below and the examination call letter will be issued accordingly. No change in the state / union territory applied for & / or examination centre will be permitted after  submission of the application form.

RELAXATION IN UPPER AGE LIMIT:
The candidate should have completed a Minimum age of 18 years and should not have completed a Maximum age of 28 years as on 30/06/2010

Relaxation in the upper age limit for reserved posts is available as follows:-

i)              Scheduled Caste / Scheduled Tribe candidates by 5 years.

ii)             Other Backward Classes candidates by 3 years.

iii)        Persons with Disability (PWD) by 10 years on cumulative basis. The cumulative age relaxation for PWD category candidates will therefore be (a) by 15 years (10 + 5) for SC/ST; (b) by 13 years (10 + 3) for OBC; and (c) by 10 years (0 + 10) for General Candidates, subject to such cumulative relaxation not taking the age of the candidate beyond 50 years as on 30.06.2010.

iv)           All persons who have ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir Division of J & K State during 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989 by 5 years. Persons eligible for age relaxation under this criteria must produce, if selected for interview, the domicile certificate from the District Magistrate in the Kashmir Division within whose jurisdiction he / she had ordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this regard by Government of Jammu & Kashmir to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir Division of the State of J & K during 01.01.1980 to 31.12.1989.

v)            Widows, divorced women & women judicially separated from their husbands, who have not remarried- by 9 years i.e. Maximum Age of 37 years.

Ex-servicemen who fulfill the revised definition as laid down in Government of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Personnel & Administrative Reforms Notification No.36034/5/85/Estt(SCT) dated 27.10.1986, as amended from time to time, who have put in not less than 6 months continuous service in the Armed Forces shall be allowed the benefit of age relaxation by deducting the length of such service from his actual age and the resultant notional age does not exceed 36 years, subject to his not exceeding the Maximum Age of 50 years.  An Ex-Serviceman who has once joined a Government job on the civil side, after availing of the benefits given to him as an Ex-Serviceman for his re-employment, his Ex-Serviceman status for the purpose of re-employment in job ceases.


ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA:`

(i)   Nationality / Citizenship:

A candidate must be either (i) a Citizen of India or (ii) a subject of Nepal or (iii) a subject of Bhutan or (iv) a Tibetan Refugee who came over to India before 1st Jan. 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or (v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania (formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Govt. of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the examination &/or interview but on final selection the offer of appointment may be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him by the Government of India.


(ii) Applications from serving employees :

Subject to their fulfilling the eligibility criteria, serving employees of Bank of India may also apply on-line for the aforesaid posts. Such candidates, if selected, shall resign from their present positions in the bank and re-join the Bank’s service afresh.

     (iii) Educational Qualifications :

The candidate should possess the following qualifications as on    30.06.2010.

(1)   Pass with 50% marks in the aggregate, either in the Higher Secondary School (HSC) Examination or Standard XII under the 10+2+3 pattern or Standard XI under the 11+4 pattern or its equivalent of recognized Educational Board, acceptable to the Bank.
or
a degree from UGC recognized University (Graduation level)

(2)  Ex-servicemen who do not possess the above Civil Examination qualifications should have passed, while serving in the Armed forces, with a minimum of 50% marks, in any of the following examinations recognized by the Government as equivalent of the Civil Examination of HSC viz., (i) IAF Educational Test for promotion to the Rank of Corporal  (ii) Passing Out (Indian Navy) Examination conducted by Boys Training Establishment, Visakhapatnam (iii) A matriculate Ex-Servicemen candidate, who have obtained the Indian Army Special Certificate of Education or corresponding Certificate in the Navy or the Air Force after having completed not less than 15 years of service in Armed Forces of the Union are also eligible to apply.

(3)  Candidates’ having completed Foundation Course on Computer Awareness & Office Automation for duration of minimum 3 months from a Computer Institute, is desirable.  The requirement of having completed the said Course will be waived in case of those candidates having Computer subject as part of the curriculum at the Pre- Degree / Degree level.

(4)  Knowledge of Regional Language of a particular State / Union Territory for which candidate apply, is essential.

(5)  The Educational Qualifications prescribed above for the post is the minimum. Candidates must possess the qualifications as on 30/06/2010.

 If selected for interview candidate should submit :

(1)  (a) HSC Passing Certificate and
(b) University FINAL DEGREE Passing (CONVOCATION) Certificate. (Provisional Degree Passing Certificate will be accepted only in case of those candidates who have passed the Degree Final Examination during the last 1 year, i.e. between 01/07/2009 and 30/06/2010 and the University has not conferred the Degree on the applicant – Degree Certificates is also required  to grant additional increment / fitment, if eligible)  &
(2) Year-wise / Semester-wise Mark sheet for each year / semester in 
respect of  the Degree Examinations from the educational institution they have studied, and

(3)  Computer Course Passing Certificate from a Computer Training
Institute in support of having completed the Foundation Course in Computer Awareness.

(6)  The Percentage of Marks stipulated for the Educational Qualification is for General (Unreserved) Category Candidates. Candidates belonging to the Reserved Category (SC / ST / OBC / PWD), filling in vacancies reserved for the relevant category, will be entitled to a relaxation of 5% Marks in relation to that stipulated for General Category Candidates. Candidates belonging to SC / ST / OBC / PWD categories filling in “unreserved” vacancies will not be entitled to the above referred relaxation.

Note: The percentage of marks in 12th Standard shall be arrived at by dividing the marks obtained by the candidate in all the subjects by aggregate maximum marks of all the subjects irrespective of optional / additional subjects studied.  

 Read about the Bank of India clerk recruitment project 2010-11 at the bank website here before proceeding to apply online.