Wednesday, June 30, 2010

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam 2009 solved paper


Corporation Bank Clerk Exam., 2009

(Held on 29-11-2009)

English Language : Solved Paper



Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived a herd of elephants at the bottom of the majestic Himalayas. Their leader was a rare white elephant who was an extremely kind-hearted soul. He greatly loved his mother who had grown blind and feeble and could not look out for herself. Each day this white elephant would go deep into the forest in search of food. He would look for the best of fruits to send to his mother through other elephants of the herd. But his mother never received any. This was because the other members of the herd would always eat them up themselve. Each night, when he returned home he would be surprised to hear that his mother had been starving all day. He was absolutely disgusted with his herd. Then one day, he decided to leave them all behind and disappeared in the middle of the night along with his dear mother. He took her to Mount Candorana to live in a cave besides a beautiful lake.

It so happened that one day, when the white elephant was feeding, he heard loud cries. A forester from Benaras had lost his way in the forest and was absolutely terrified. The white elephant told him not to worry as he knew every inch of this forest and could take him to safety. He then lifted him on to his back and carried him to the edge of the forest from where the forester went on his merry way back to Benaras.


On reaching the city, he heard that King’s personal elephant had just died and the King was looking for a new elephant. His heralds were roaming the city, announcing that any man who had seen or heard of an elephant fit for a king should come forward with the information. The forester was very excited and immediately went up to the King and told him about the white elephant that he had seen on Mount Candorana. The King was quite pleased with the information and immediately dispatched a number of soldiers and elephant trainers along with the forester. After travelling for many days, the group reached the lake besides which the elephants resided. They slowly crept down to the edge of the lake and hid behind the bushes. The white elephant was collecting lotus shoots for his mother’s meal and could sense the presence of humans. When he looked up, he spotted the forester and realized that it was he who had led the King’s men to him. He was very upset at the ingratitude but decided not to put up a struggle as many of the men would be killed. And he was just too kind to hurt anyone. So he decided to go along with them to Benaras and then seek a solution to this problem.

On reaching the beautiful city of Benaras, the trainers laid out a feast for their new State elephant but he refused to touch a morsel. He did not respond to any kind of stimuli, be it the fragrant flowers or the beautiful and comfortable stable. He just sat there looking completely despondent. The King was extremely concerned. He offered the elephant food from the royal table and asked him why he grieved in this manner. The white elephant replied that he would not eat a thing until he met his mother back home on Mount Candorana as she must be hungry because she was blind and had no one to feed her and take care of her. He was afraid that she would die. The compassionate King was touched by the elephant’s story and assured him that his soldiers would bring his old mother to the palace as soon as possible. The king kept his promise and his soldiers took good care of his mother as well for as long as she lived. She blessed the kind King with peace, prosperity and joy till the end of his days. In this way the white elephant could serve the king and also enjoy the royal perks at the king’s palace along with his mother.

1. What did the white elephant do when he realised that his mother had been starving even though he had been sending food for her ?
(A) He punished his herd members and told them to leave the jungle
(B) He went to Benaras to report the happenings of the herd to the King
(C) With the help of the King’s soldiers, he got the herd members killed
(D) He and his mother left the herd behind
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. What did the King do when the forester told him about a white elephant ?
(A) He rewarded the forester with lots of valuables
(B) He sent his soldiers to the forest to bring the white elephant to Benaras
(C) He sent his soldiers to the forest to hunt down the white elephant
(D) He ordered the forester to bring the white elephant to him from the forest
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

3. Why did the white elephant’s mother never receive the fruits sent by her son ?
(A) The other members of the herd would eat up the fruits themselves instead of taking them to her
(B) The King’s soldiers blocked her food supply in order to make her weak and capture her to be taken to the King
(C) Because the King would never let any food sent by the white elephant reach his mother
(D) Because the ungrateful forester sold the fruits collected by the white elephant in Benaras
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Why was the forester terrified and crying for help in the forest ?
(A) He was scared to see a white elephant
(B) The elephant had lifted him forcefully to his back
(C) He wanted to warn the white elephant against the King’s men
(D) He had lost his way and wanted someone’s help
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. Why did the white elephant collect food for his mother daily ?
(A) The king did not provide food to the elephant’s mother
(B) All the elephants from the herd refused to collect food for the old mother elephant
(C) The elephant’s mother could not fend for herself
(D) The white elephant’s mother would not accept food from anyone but her son
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. Why did the white elephant not put up a struggle against the King’s soldiers ?
(A) He did not want anyone to get hurt in the struggle
(B) He was blind and feeble and thus could not put up a struggle
(C) He surrendered as he realised that he would not be able to fight so many soldiers
(D) He feared that the King may kill his mother if he did not go to the palace
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Why was the white elephant upset to see the forester alongwith the King’s soldiers ?
(A) He had invited only the forester and not the King’s soldiers to the forest
(B) The king’s soldiers had arrested the forester for concealing the whereabouts of the white elephant
(C) He did not expect such ingratitude from the forester as he had helped him once
(D) The forester, alongwith the soldiers had captured the white elephant’s mother
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. Why was the white elephant unhappy and refused to eat in the King’s palace ?
(A) He was unhappy with the royal treatment and expected more comforts
(B) He was worried about his mother who was blind and weak
(C) He was protesting against the forester’s ingratitude towards him
(D) The King’s soldiers had injured him and his mother while captivating both of them
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage ?
(A) The forester could never go back to Benaras from the forest
(B) The white elephant’s herd members were co-operative and honest
(C) The forester ultimately became a good friend of the white elephant
(D) The white elephant’s mother was finally left alone in the forest
(E) None is true
Ans : (E)

10. Which of the following best describes the King as mentioned in the passage ?
(A) Ungrateful
(B) Weak & feeble
(C) Dishonest
(D) Sympathetic
(E) Ingenious
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. DISAPPEARED
(A) Hid
(B) Departed
(C) Escaped
(D) Disintegrated
(E) Strayed
Ans : (C)

12. SPOTTED
(A) Blemished
(B) Experienced
(C) Appeared
(D) Projected
(E) Saw
Ans : (E)

13. STRUGGLE
(A) Hardship
(B) Adversity
(C) Fight
(D) Striving
(E) Argument
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. FEEBLE
(A) Strong
(B) Intense
(C) Unbreakeable
(D) Preserved
(E) Substantial
Ans : (A)

15. EDGE
(A) Blunt
(B) Beginning
(C) Indoors
(D) Interiors
(E) Rim
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. If you would have taken the medicine, you could have gone to school today.
(A) If you would take
(B) Had you taken
(C) If you would be taking
(D) If you been taking
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

17. Earning lots of money is one of the desires which are never satisfied—
(A) which are never satisfy
(B) who are never satisfied
(C) who is never satisfies
(D) which is never satisfied
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

18. The passage was so difficult that I could not comprehend it in the first reading—
(A) as difficult that
(B) so difficult as
(C) as difficult as
(D) very difficult that
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

19. Besides his wife, his children and other relatives also attends the function—
(A) too attends
(B) also attending
(C) also attended
(D) too attending
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

20. Good leaders are always attentive towards his subordinates’ needs
(A) A god leader is
(B) Good leaders is
(C) Some good leader are
(D) All good leaders are
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. He was unable (A) to give satisfactory (B) explanation for his absense (C) from the meeting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

22. Much (A) countries are starting to turn (B) their attention (C) to new sources (D) of energy. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

23. As the ship was sinking (A) fast, the captain (B) gave orders to abandon (C) it immediately. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

24. The council (A) denied having any hand (B) in the recently (C) unearthed scandle. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

25. Their (A) has been a series of abductions (B) of young children (C) of the schools in the area. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) The man immediately got off the car, slapped the young boy who had thrown the brick and asked him why he did so ?
(2) The boy then requested the driver to help him since he was unable to lift his injured brother alone.
(3) The river stood to watch the young boy push the wheelchair down the road and decided to never repair the dent.
(4) A man was driving down a higway when a brick smashed on the side of his expensive, brand new car.
(5) Moved beyond words, the driver apologised to the young boy and quickly lifted his brother and provided first aid to him.
(6) The boy was in tears and said that he had to do so as no one on the highway had stopped to help his handicapped brother who had slipped from his wheelchair.

26. Which of the folloiwng should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

29. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

31. Hostility between the (A) / two groups have (B) / increased in the (C) / past few months. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

32. Her class is very special (A) / because it has children (B) / with many different (C) / abilities and skills. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. Many peoples were (A) / brought to safety (B) / by the army helicopters (C) / from the flood hit area. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. It is difficult to (A) / understand the problems (B) / that the physically challenged people (C) / encounters in their daily life. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

35. I had gone only a little way (A) / down the street (B) / when I realised that (C) / I had not lock the door. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

36. Mammoths were a (A) / species of elephants (B) / who lived millions of years ago (C) / but are now extinct. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

37. The sink is (A) / so dirty that (B) / one needs a very strong (C) / abrasive to cleaning it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

38. The talks ended (A) / abruptly when on of (B) / the delegate walked (C) / out in protest. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

39. A twenty year old (A) / absconder was caught (B) / in a local restaurant (C) / this morning. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. If she will secure more than (A) / 90% marks in the exams (B) / I will give her (C) / a suitable reward. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Findout the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there was a huge tree on the …(41)… of a river. The tree made a comfortable home for the family of birds who had built their nests on its branch. The birds were living there happily as the tree with its widespread branches provided …(42)… to them from scorching sun and heavy rains.

One day, when the …(43)… was overcast, it rained very heavily. Some monkeys, who were playing nearby the tree, got …(44)… and ran for shelter under the tree. All of them were …(45)… with cold. When the birds saw the monkeys in pitiable condition, one of the birds said, “O Monkeys ! If we can build our nest with small beaks,then why can’t you. By God’s grace, you have two hands and two legs. Why don’t you make a nice shelter for yourselves ?

On hearing this, the monkeys got …(46)… and swore to teach the birds a lesson. They said to themsleves. “These birds are not afraid of the rain or of cold wind. They are living comfortably that is why they are …(47)… us like this. Let the rain stop, we’ll show them how to build home”. As soon as the rain stopped, the monkeys …(48)… up the tree and …(49)… the nests of the birds. They also broke the birds’ eggs and threw the young ones down.

The poor birds flew here and there in misery. They were full of …(50)… for their words and realized that they should not have given advice that was not asked for. Advice should only be given to the learned, the wise and those who ask for it.

41. (A) waters
(B) middle
(C) bank
(D) bottom
(E) inside
Ans : (C)

42. (A) shelter
(B) house
(C) habitat
(D) filter
(E) fruits
Ans : (A)

43. (A) tree
(B) birds
(C) rain
(D) river
(E) sky
Ans : (E)

44. (A) shocked
(B) drenched
(C) drowned
(D) flooded
(E) immersed
Ans : (B)

45. (A) shaking
(B) wet
(C) angry
(D) shivering
(E) soaked
Ans : (D)

46. (A) inspired
(B) sorry
(C) annyed
(D) defensive
(E) tearful
Ans : (C)

47. (A) violating
(B) injuring
(C) drenching
(D) boasting
(E) criticizing
Ans : (E)

48. (A) travelled
(B) climbed
(C) ascended
(D) attacked
(E) mounted
Ans : (B)

49. (A) constructed
(B) occupied
(C) built
(D) destroyed
(E) inhabited
Ans : (D)

50. (A) regret
(B) pride
(C) pleasure
(D) hatred
(E) revenge
Ans : (A)

CORPORATION BANK CLERK 2010 EXAM PATTERN


CORPORATION BANK CLERK 2010 EXAM PATTERN
EXAM PATTERN & SELECTION PROCEDURE  :
All  the  eligible  candidates  who  apply  for  the  post  with requisite fee and whose applications are registered in time
will  be  called  for  written  examination,  The  written examination  shall be objective  in nature  consisting of 4 papers for a composite duration of 1 hour and 35 minutes, as  follows:
SL.NO NAME OF THE PAPER NO.OF.QUESTIONS MAX.MARKS
1 Test of Reasoning Ability and Numerical Aptitude 100 160
2 Test of Clerical Aptitude 40 40
3 Test of English Language 40 40
4 Test of General Knowledge 20 20
NOTE: a) Candidates have  to pass  in each of  the Objective  test  separately.
b)  Depending  upon  the  number  of vacancies,  only  those  candidates  who  rank  sufficiently high in the objective test will be called for interview. Mere eligibility/ pass  in  the examination shall not vest any  right  in a  candidate  for  being  called  for  interview.
c)    Final selection will be on the basis of merit ranking after adding the marks obtained  in  the Objective Tests and  Interview.
d)The detailed  information  regarding written examination will be available  in  the Bank’s website under  “Acquaint yourself ” and may be downloaded.
e) Those who are eligible for interview shall be subjected  to Computer Literacy Test.

CORPORATION BANK RECRUITMENT 2010

CORPORATION BANK RECRUITMENT 2010 FOR 1250 CLERK JOBS
ON-LINE APPLICATIONS ARE INVITED FOR APPOINTMENT IN THE CLERICAL CADRE
Opening date  for On-Line Registration : 01.07.2010
Closing date  for On-Line Registration  : 31.07.2010
(For All Applicants,  including  those  from Far Flung Areas)
Call Letters  to be downloaded  from website of  the Bank after : 24.08.2010
Likely date of Examination : 12.09.2010

AGE LIMIT: Not below 18 years and not above 28 years as on  01.06.2010
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION : (As on the Date of Application): Graduate  in any discipline with 40% or more marks in aggregate from a recognized university or  its  equivalent  qualification.  SC/ST/XS/VH/HI/OH candidates must obtain 35% marks. Computer Literacy is essential  for  the post.
APPLICATION FEE INCLUDING OUT OF POCKET EXPENSES (non-refundable):
For SC / ST / VH / HI / OH / Ex-Servicemen   -  Rs. 50/-
(towards out of pocket expenses only)
For All Others   (including OBCs) -                           Rs. 200/-
NOTE: 1. Application fee including out of pocket expenses should be paid  in cash at any of  the Branches of Corporation Bank  to A/c No. 0377/CA/01/000709.
2. Payment of application fees paid /or out of pocket expenses by DD/Cheques/ Money Order/Postal Order will not be accepted.
PROBATION AND APPROXIMATE TOTAL EMOLUMENTS  :

Probation: 6 Months. Total emoluments for graduates at the start of the scale  in Clerical Cadre will be Rs. 9,500/- (Approx.) (Including DA & HRA)  (for metro). Other benefits  include Conveyance, Medical Aid, LFC and Retirement benefits, as per  the bank’s  rules.

Monday, June 28, 2010

Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam., 2009



Indian Overseas Bank P.O. Exam., 2009
(Held on 5-4-2009)
English Language : Solved Paper


Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
questions.
Goldman Sachs predicted that crude oil price would hit $200 and just as it appeared that alternative
renewable energy had a chance of becoming an economically viable option, the international price of
oil fell by over 70%. After hitting the all-time high of $147 a barrel, a month ago, crude oil fell to less
than $40 a barrel. What explains this sharp decline in the international price of oil? There has not been
any major new discovery of a hitherto unknown source of oil or gas. The short answer is that the
demand does not have to fall by a very sizeable quantity for the price of crude to respond as it did. In
the short run, the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low. Conversely, in the short run, even
a relatively big change in the price of oil does not immediately lower consumption. It takes months, or
years, of high oil price to inculcate habits of energy conservation. World crude oil price had remained
at over $60 a barrel for most of 2005-2007 without making any major dent in demand.
The long answer is more complex. The economic slowdown in the US, Europe and Asia along with
dollar depreciation and commodity speculation have all had some role in the downward descent in the
international price of oil. In recent years, the supply of oil has been rising but not enough to catch up
with the rising demand, resulting in an almost vertical escalation in its price. The number of crude oil
futures and options contracts have also increased manifold which has led to significant speculation in
the oil market. In comparison, the role of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)
in fixing crude price has considerably weakened. OPEC is often accused of operating as a cartel
restricting output thus keeping prices artificially high. It did succeed in setting the price of crude during
the 1970s and the first half of the 80s. But, with increased futures trading and contracts, the control of
crude pricing has moved from OPEC to banks and markets that deal with futures trading and contracts.
It is true that most oil exporting regions of the world have remained politically unstable fuelling
speculation over the price of crude. But there is little evidence that the geopolitical uncertainties in west
Asia have improved to weaken the price of oil. Threatened by the downward slide of oil price, OPEC
has, in fact, announced its decision to curtail output.
However most oil importers will heave a sigh of relief as they find their oil import bills decline except
for those who bought options to import oil at prices higher than market prices. Exporting nations, on
the other hand, will see their economic prosperity slip. Relatively low price of crude is also bad news
for investments in alternative renewable energy that cannot compete with cheaper and non-renewable
sources of energy.
1. Why are oil importing countries relieved ?
(A) Price of crude reached $ 147 not $ 200 as was predicted
(B) Discovery of oil reserves within their own territories
(C) Demand for crude has fallen sharply
(D) There is no need for them to invest huge amounts of money in alternative sources of energy
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
2. Which of the following factors is responsible for rise in speculation in crude oil markets ?
1. OPEC has not been able to restrict the oil output and control prices
2. The supply of oil has been rising to match demand
3. Existence of large number of oil futures and oil contracts
(A) Only 1
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. What does the phrase “the price elasticity of demand for crude oil is very low” imply ?
(A) When the price rises the demand for crude oil falls immediately
(B) A small change in demand will result in a sharp change in the price of crude
(C) Within a short span of time the price of crude oil has fluctuated sharply
(D) Speculation in oil does not have much of an impact on its price
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
4. Which of the following is/are TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. The decline in oil prices has benefited all countries
2. Renewable energy sources are costlier than non-renewable ones
3. Lack of availability of alternative renewable energy resulted in rise in demand for crude
(A) Only 2
(B) Both 1 & 2
(C) Both 2 & 3
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
5. What has been the impact of the drop in oil prices ?
(A) Exploration for natural gas resources has risen
(B) The dollar has fallen sharply
(C) OPEC has decided to restrict its production of oil
(D) Economic depression in oil importing countries
(E) Drastic fall in demand for crude oil
Ans : (C)
6. What led to alternative energy sources being considered economically feasible ?
(A) The price of oil rose by 70 per cent while renewable energy sources are cheap
(B) Exorbitant crude oil prices made alternative energy sources an attractive option
(C) Expert predictions that the price of oil would alternately escalate and plunge sharply
(D) Evidence that no new sources of oil and gas are available
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
7. What does the author want to convey by citing the statistic of 2005-2007 ?
(A) The prices of crude were rising gradually so people were not alarmed
(B) The dollar was a strong currency during that period
(C) Many people turned to alternative renewable energy sources because of high oil prices
(D) If the price of oil is high for a short time it does not necessarily result in a drop in consumption
(E) People did not control their demand for fuel then which created the current economic slowdown
Ans : (D)
8. Which of the following factors is not responsible for the current drop in oil prices ?
(A) Economic crisis in America, European and Asian nations
(B) Speculation in oil markets
(C) Weakening of the dollar
(D) Political stability in oil exporting countries
(E) All the above are not responsible for the current drop in oil prices
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?
1. OPEC was established in 1970 to protect the interests of oil importing countries
2. When demand for oil exceeds supply there is a sharp rise in price
3. Today futures trading markets set the oil prices to a large extent
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Both 1 & 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
10. Which of the following is the function of OPEC ?
(A) Controlling speculation in oil
(B) Ensuring profits are equally distributed to all its members
(C) Monitoring inflation in oil prices and taking necessary steps to lower it
(D) Guaranteeing political instability in oil exporting countries does not impact output
(E) Determining prices of crude oil
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold
as used in the passage.
11. INCULCATE
(A) Modify
(B) Construct
(C) Initiate
(D) Fix
(E) Instill
Ans : (D)
12. FUELLING
(A) Incentive
(B) Supplying
(C) Stimulating
(D) Irritating
(E) Restoring
Ans : (C)
13. DENT
(A) Reduction
(B) Break
(C) Tear
(D) Breach
(E) Split
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in
bold as used in the passage.
14. CONVERSELY
(A) Compatibly
(B) Similarly
(C) Likely
(D) Aligning
(E) Resembling
Ans : (B)
15. WEAKEN
(A) Powerful
(B) Nourish
(C) Intense
(D) Boost
(E) Energise
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should
replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
16. We have hired an advertising agency to prepare a campaign to encourage people votes.
(A) People from voting
(B) Voting for people
(C) People to vote
(D) Votes by people
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)
17. During the training programme the new recruits will be briefed about how their role in the new
organisation.
(A) What their roles
(B) About their role
(C) For its roles
(D) Which are their role
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)
18. The equipment is in such poor condition that we have no alternative to buy new ones.
(A) Many alternative like
(B) Any alternative except
(C) No other alternative
(D) No alternative but
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)
19. Since the deadline has been changed from next week to this Thursday you should give this work
priority.
(A) Be given this work priority
(B) Not give priority this work
(C) Prioritised this work
(D) Priority this work
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)
20. After the success of our project we have been receiving more requests than we do not have the
resources to handle them.
(A) Many requests but
(B) Most of the requests
(C) More requests that
(D) Too many requests
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is
given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D).One of these four words printed in bold may be either
wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt
or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are
correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your
answer.
21. The document (A) he gave me was long and complicated (B) and I struggled (C) to understand (D)
it. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)
22. We shall have to await (A) and see if these measures (B) are sufficient (C) to address (D) the
problem. All correct (E)
Ans : (A)
23. They are negotiating (A) to try and reach (B) an agreement which will beneficial (C) everyone
concerned. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)
24. The company has decided (A) to allott (B) a substantial (C) portion (D) of its profits to research and
development. All correct (E)
Ans : (B)
25. It remains (A) to be seen whether (B) these reforms (C) will be acceptable (D) by the Board. All
correct (E)
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) For instance, if we measure the room temperature continuously and plot its graph with time on Xaxis
and temperature on the Y-axis,we get a continuous waveform, which is an analog signal. Analog is
always continuous.
(2) The absence or presence of something can be used to plot a digital signal.
(3) An analog signal is a continuously varying signal, similar to a sinusoidal waveform.
(4) Any signal can be classified into one of the two types : analog and digital.
(5) In contrast, a digital signal takes the form of pulses,where we have something or nothing.
26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)
27. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)
28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)
29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
30. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. He has taken care to (A) / compliance with the norms (B) / so he expects the proposal (C) / to be
approved without delay. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
32. Under the terms of the new deal (A) / the channel can broadcast (B) / the next cricket tournament to
be (C) / played among India and Australia. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
33. Our equipment gets damage (A) / very often in summer (B) / because there are (C) / frequent power
cuts. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
34. We have received many (A) / of the letters from customers (B) / asking us to extend (C) / the
deadline to repay their loans. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
35. Since I had lived there (A) / for many years the villagers (B) / were very comfortable talked (C) / to
me about their problems. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
36. We have been under (A) / a lot of pressure to (B) / open fifty new stores (C) / by the ending of the
year. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)
37. The government has (A) / launched many creative schemes (B) / to make banking services (C) /
available to everyone. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)
38. The company is in debt (A) / and has been unable (B) / to pay their employees’ salaries (C) / for the
past six months. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
39. This is turned out to be (A) / one of our most successful projects (B) / and we have made quite (C) /
a large profit from it. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)
40. A non banking financial company is a (A) / financial institution similarly to a bank (B) / but it
cannot issue (C) / cheque books to customers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
On October 2, 1983 the Grameen Bank Project …(41)… the Grameen Bank. We invited the Finance
Minister to be the Chief Guest at our …(42)… ceremony. But when the Ministry came to …(43)… that
the ceremony would take place in a remote district, they said it would not be an …(44)… place to
launch a Bank and that the ceremony should be …(45)… in Dhaka so that all the top Government
Officials could …(46)… We stood firm and …(47)… to them that we did not work in urban areas so it
made no …(48)… to have the ceremony in a city …(49)… we had no borrowers. We had the ceremony
in a big open field with the Finance Minister present as Chief Guest. For all of us who had worked so
hard to …(50)… this it was a dream come true.
41. (A) reorganised
(B) merged
(C) named
(D) converted
(E) became
Ans : (E)
42. (A) opening
(B) closing
(C) dedicated
(D) inaugurate
(E) induction
Ans : (A)
43. (A) reveal
(B) know
(C) aware
(D) inform
(E) acquaint
Ans : (B)
44. (A) excellent
(B) available
(C) inauspicious
(D) appropriate
(E) obvious
Ans : (D)
45. (A) invited
(B) assembled
(C) done
(D) shifted
(E) held
Ans : (E)
46. (A) present
(B) accompany
(C) attend
(D) involve
(E) entertain
Ans : (C)
47. (A) apologised
(B) told
(C) explained
(D) denied
(E) refused
Ans : (C)
48. (A) difference
(B) sense
(C) difficulty
(D) meaning
(E) point
Ans : (B)
49. (A) where
(B) while
(C) that
(D) however
(E) which
Ans : (A)
50. (A) obey
(B) achieve
(C) discover
(D) built
(E) perform
Ans : (B)

Sunday, June 27, 2010

Result: SBI PO Exam held on Mar 07, 2010 for 1717 posts

State Bank of India (SBI) has released the result for recruitment of 1717 POs in SBI Associate Banks held on March 07 2010 for the applications that were invited in January 2010.
The result is available of the official website of SBI.
Interview:
According to SBI candidates are being called for Interview in the ratio of 1:3. That would mean that about 5100 candidates will have to fight it for 1700 available posts.
The Interview schedule is also available online. You would need you roll number and date of birth to search the result.
Direct Link:
http://www.sbi.co.in/user.htm?action=sbiRecruitmentPO

Sunday, June 20, 2010

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

Punjab National Bank Clerk Exam., 2010
English Language : Solved Paper(Held on 4-4-2010)


Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there lived an old lion. The lion, the king of the forest had grown old. He became frail and due to this, he could not hunt for food. With each passing day he became more and more weak. He realized that he would not live for long if it continued like that. He thought how could he arrange for his food ? After pondering over it for quite some time, he decided that he should have an assistant.

The lion thought that a fox would be the best person to handle this position as he was intelligent and clever. He summoned the fox and said, “Dear friend, I have always liked you because you are smart. I want to appoint you as my minister and advise me on all the affairs of the forest”. The old lion also asked the fox, that since he was the king of the forest, he should not have to hunt for his food. With respect to this, the fox’s first duty as minister was to bring him an animal to eat every day. The fox could not refuse the king and accepted the offer.

After the conversation, the fox went out to find an animal for the lion. On the way, he met a fat donkey. He said “My friend, I have got good news for you. You are very lucky. Our king, the lion has chosen you to be his chief minister. He asked me to meet you and inform you about his decision.” The donkey was scared of the lion and said, “I am afraid of the lion. He might kill me and eat me up. Why has he chosen me as his chief minsiter ? I am not even fit enough to be a minster as I am not as intelligent as other animals.” The clever fox laughed and, said, “Dear, you don’t know your great qualities. Our king is dying to meet you. He has chosen you because you are wise, gentle, and hard working. By serving the king, you will be the second most powerful animal of our forest. Imagine, all the other animals will respect you and seek favours from you.” “You must not lose your greatest chance in life.” So, the poor donkey was convinced and got ready to go along with the fox.

In this way, the fox managed to attract the donkey to the lion’s den. When the fox and the donkey approached, the lion was hungrier than ever. But he kept a smiling face and said, “Welcome, my dear friend. Come near me. You are my chief minister.” As the donkey came closer, the lion pounced on him and killed him instantly. The lion thanked the clever fox and was happy to get the food. As the lion sat down to take his meal, the fox said, “Your Majesty, I know you are very hungry but a king must take a bath before his meal”. The lion thought it was a good idea and told the fox to keep a watch on the carcass of the donkey”. The fox silently sat down to keep a watch of the donkey and thought to himslef, “I took all the trouble of getting the donkey here. It is I who deserve the best portion of the meal”. Thus, the fox cut open the head of the donkey and ate up the whole brain. When the lion returned he shouted, “What happened to the donkey’s brain ? I wanted to eat the brain first.” The fox smilingly replied, “Your majesty,
donkeys have no brains. If he had any, he would not have come near a lion at all”.

1. Why did the lion decide to have an assistant for him ?
(A) He was too lazy to hunt for himself
(B) He was old and weak and could not hunt any more
(C) He wanted someone to help him kill the fat donkey
(D) He could not handle the affairs of the forest alone
(E) None of these

2. Why did the lion select the fox as his assistant ?
(A) He had heard that the fox had good hunting skills
(B) He wanted the fox to take over as the king of the forest
(C) The fox had offered to let the lion have his leftovers
(D) He had planned to eat the fox after luring him to become his assistant
(E) None of these

3. Why did the fox say ‘our king is dying to meet you’ to the donkey ?
(A) The king would have died of hunger if the donkey did not meet him
(B) The king desperately wanted the donkey to be his chief minister as he was gentle and hard working
(C) The fox wanted to convince the donkey to come with him to the lion so that the lion could eat him
(D) The king wanted to meet the doneky since all other animals respected the donkey more than the king
(E) None of these

4. Which of the following best describes the donkey ?
(A) Honest
(B) Wicked
(C) Clever
(D) Opportunist
(E) Foolish

5. Which one of the phrases given below the following statement should be placed in the blank space provided so as to make a meaningfully correct sentence in the context of the passage ?
When the lion did not see any brain in the donkey’s head ……….
(A) he spared his life and let him go
(B) he got upset with the fox for having selected such a donkey
(C) he took his decision to make him the chief minister back
(D) the fox explained to him that donekys do not have any brains
(E) None of these


6. What, according to the lion, was the fox’s primary duty as a minister ?
(A) To force all animals to respect their king and seek favours from him
(B) To convince the donkey to become his chief minister
(C) To take over as the king of the forest since the lion had grown too old
(D) To bring him an animal to eat every day
(E) None of these

7. What did the fox do when the lion went to take a bath before having his meal ?
(A) He secretly told the donkey to run away as the lion had planned to kill him
(B) He ate up the donkey’s brain as he had done all the hard work of bringing him to the lion’s den
(C) He held himself responsible for the death of the poor donkey and did not let the lion eat the donkey
(D) He killed the lion with the help of the donkey and became the king of the forest
(E) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in context of the passage ?
(A) Finally, the fox got the best part of the meal
(B) The donkey was appointed as chief minister to the king
(C) The donkey which the fox had brought for the king did not have any brain in his head
(D) The donkey was very intelligent and clever
(E) None is true

9. What did the lion do when he saw the donkey in his den ?
(A) He was impressed by the donkey and made him his chief minister
(B) He ordered the fox to kill him and eat his brain
(C) He went to take a bath before meeting the donkey
(D) He immediately noticed that the donkey did not have any brain
(E) None of these

10. Which of the following is the moral of the story ?
(A) An idle brain is the devil’s workshop
(B) Fools are deaf to wise words
(C) Never believe an enemy’s sweet talks
(D) Morality can be best tested while one has power
(E) One can only lead a horse to water, but not make him drink it

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. POUNCED
(A) Climbed
(B) Grew
(C) Attacked
(D) Plunged
(E) Roared

12. FIT
(A) Healthy
(B) Deserving
(C) Strong
(D) Valuable
(E) Important

13. LOSE
(A) Misplace
(B) Suffer
(C) Dispose
(D) Defeat
(E) Miss

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. HANDLE
(A) Mismanage
(B) Drop
(C) Confront
(D) Decline
(E) Uncover

15. FRAIL
(A) Unhealthy
(B) Massive
(C) Rich
(D) Robust
(E) Civilised

Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. When I called him yesterday, (A) / he offered to donate (B) / a handsome sum to (C) / the flood relief fund. (D) No error (E)

17. The student which (A) / you had thought (B) / so highly of has (C) / failed to pass the examination. (D) No error (E)

18. Government took strict action (A) / against the doctors on strike (B) / but they refused to (C) / resume to work. (D) No error (E)

19. If a person has been given (A) / diplomatic immunity then he (B) / cannot be arrested on a (C) / foreign land under any circumstance. (D) No error (E)

20. A group of birds (A) / migrate from southern part (B) / of the country to the (C) / Northern part during summer. (D) No error (E)

21. The constable said that (A) / the prisoner seize a (B) / fully loaded gun from a policeman (C) / and shot the prosecutor. (D) No error (E)

22. It will not be possible for you (A) / to catch the train on time (B) / because the nearest railway station (C) / is at ten kilometres away. (D) No error (E)

23. Each of the survivors of the Tsunami (A) (B) / have been offered free (C) / psychological consultation to ease their trauma, / by some of the top consultants. (D) No error (E)

24. Considering about her good credentials, (A) / the manager offered her a job (B) / in his organization (C) / despite the lack of experience. (D) No error (E)

25. Although he has been (A) / winning the elections (B) / all years, this year his popularity (C) / has substantially reduced. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) To their surprise, however, the reward went to a beggar who had contributed only a Rupee instead of a wealthy donor.
(b) He received funds from many people as rich and poor donated generously to his trust.
(c) The man explained that the one Rupee given by the beggar was worth millions of Rupees as that was all the money he possessed and that he had made a much greater sacrifice than others.
(d) During the function everyone waited with bated breath to hear who had made the maximum contribution.
(e) A man went from town to town to collect money for his charitable trust.
(f) On returning he decided to hold a function and reward the person whose contribution had been maximum.

26. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

27. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

28. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) b
(B) c
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

29. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) c
(D) e
(E) f

30. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) a
(B) b
(C) d
(D) e
(E) f

Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each of the following questions six words are given which are denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f). By using all the six words, each only once, you have to frame a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence. The correct order of words is the answer. Choose from the five alternatives, the one having the correct order of words and mark it as your answer on the answer-sheet.

31. (a) OTHERS
(b) HER
(c) SHE
(d) MISTAKES
(e) FOR
(f) BLAMES
(A) cfaebd
(B) acfebd
(C) bdacfe
(D) cfdabe
(E) bdafce

32. (a) FINALISE
(b) WE
(c) DETAILS
(d) LATER
(e) THE
(f) WILL
(A) BFEACD
(B) BDCFEA
(C) BDCAEF
(D) ECFDBA
(E) BFAECD

33. (a) UV-RAYS
(b) ABSORBS
(c) THE
(d) LAYER
(e) HARMFUL
(f) OZONE
(A) ACBEFD
(B) CFDBEA
(C) ACBFED
(D) CFBDAE
(E) CBEAFD

34. (a) PRACTISING
(b) SPEECH
(c) SPENT
(d) HIS
(e) HE
(f) HOURS
(A) DBCFEA
(B) DBFCAE
(C) EBCDAF
(D) FACBED
(E) ECFADB

35. (a) TO
(b) AROUND
(c) SEE
(d) THEY
(e) HIM
(f) HATED
(A) DFAECB
(B) DBFAEC
(C) DFCAEB
(D) DFACEB
(E) CEBFAD

Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word, if any, which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E), i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

36. A large number of celebrities (A) have joined an NGO involved (B) in the movement for protection (C) of animal writes. (D) All correct (E)

37. The teacher liked the poem (A) so much that she requested (B) Saba to read it allowed (C) to the whole (D) class. All correct (E)

38. Breathe (A) deeply and inhale the sents (B) of Roses and Daisies in the landscaped gardens (C) surrounding (D) my house. All correct (E)

39. As the wind blue (A) harder every minute, (B) people got a fairly (C) good idea that a storm was approaching (D) the town. All correct (E)

40. The family had to bear (A) a leaky sealing (B) throughout the rainy season (C) as they could not afford (D) to get it repaired. All correct (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Once upon a time, there lived a sparrow on a banyan tree. She laid her eggs in the nest. One afternoon, a wild elephant came under the tree and in a fit of rage, broke a branch of the tree on which the nest was …(41)…. Unfortunately, all the eggs of the sparrow …(42)… after falling down though the sparrow was saved. The sparrow was full of grief and began weeping for her eggs.

A woodpecker, a close friend of the sparrow, heard her crying and asked her, “Why are you crying, my friend ?” The sparrow said, “The …(43)… elephant has killed my offspring. If you are a true friend of mine, suggest a way-to kill him”. The woodpecker …(44)… her and told her that he knew a fly and she would definitely help them kill the elephant.

Both of them went to seek the help of the fly. The woodpecker said, “A wild elephant has crushed my friend’s eggs. We need your help in killing him.” the fly replied, “One of my friends is a frog. Let us go to him and take his help too”. They went to the frog and …(45)… the whole incident. The frog said, “What can an elephant do before a united crowd like us ? Do what I tell you. Dear Fly, you go to the elephant and hum a sweet tune into his ears. When he closes his eyes in delight, the woodpecker will poke his eyes. This way, he will become …(46)…. When he gets thirsty, he will …(47)… for water. I will go to a marshy land and begin croaking there. …(48)… that there is water, the elephant will come there. He will sink into the marshy area and …(49)….

The next day in the noon, all of them played out the plan and the elephant was killed, as he drowned into a marshy area after being blinded by the woodpecker, when he closed his eyes in response to the music. Thus, the smartness of all the animals enabled the sparrow in taking her …(50)… on the elephant.

41. (A) Born
(B) Built
(C) Grown
(D) Broken
(E) Found

42. (A) Fell
(B) Escaped
(C) Damaged
(D) Survived
(E) Broke

43. (A) Defective
(B) Attacking
(C) Wicked
(D) Poor
(E) Harmless

44. (A) Ignored
(B) Protected
(C) Scolded
(D) Consoled
(E) Defended

45. (A) Said
(B) Informed
(C) Revived
(D) Mention
(E) Narrated

46. (A) Blind
(B) Unseen
(C) Regretful
(D) Sorry
(E) Dead

47. (A) Need
(B) Want
(C) Search
(D) Drink
(E) Demands

48. (A) Recalling
(B) Informed
(C) Sure
(D) Assuming
(E) Accepting

49. (A) Hurt
(B) Die
(C) Fall
(D) Kill
(E) Realise

50. (A) Help
(B) Revenge
(C) Anger
(D) Insult
(E) Fight

Answers :1. (B) 2. (E) 3. (A) 4. (E) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (E) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (D) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (A) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (E) 30. (D)
31. (A) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (D) 45. (E) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2010

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2010
Held on 21-02-2010
English Language : Solved Paper


Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Evidence is growing that relatively cheap policies like climate engineering and non-carbon energy research could effectively prevent suffering from global warming, both in the short and long term. Unfortunately, political leaders gathering at a special meeting of the United Nations in New York will focus on a very different response. They will make many of the most important decisions on how to respond to climate change over the next decade. They are expected to thrash out political disputes like how much carbon rich and poor nations should agree to cut.

We have failed to rein in emission rises despite sincere and well-meaning promises made in Kyoto in 1997 and earlier, because carbon cuts are expensive to enact. Research by climate economists show that significant carbon cuts could cost a staggering 12•9% of global GDP in 2100. Available estimates show that for each dollar spent on global carbon cuts, we buy two cents worth of avoided climate damage. The solution is far more costly than the problem. Thus a global deal based around carbon cuts is expected to include a lot of spending from rich countries to help poor nations to prepare for global warming. Developed countries too apparently seem to have no problems in spending much money to save few lives in the distant future, instead of combating malnutrition, malaria, or communicable diseases today. It is amoral to build a dam to avoid flooding in 100 years, when the people living beside that dam are starving today.

Imagine if we could fix climate for the next hundred years for less than what a single country spends on climate research in a year. Climate engineering has the potential to do just that. One can explore the costs and benefits of so-called marine cloud whitening, a well-established techproposal in which seawater droplets would be sprayed into clouds above the sea to make them reflect more sunlight back into space thus augmenting the natural process where sea salt helps to provide tiny particles for clouds to form around. About $9 billion spent developing this technology might be able to cancel out this century’s global warming. The benefits from preventing the temperature increase would add up to about $20 trillion. We should research this technology today to identify its limitations, risks and potential so that it could buy us a century’s delay in warming.

But this will not be sufficient because we need better non-carbonbased technology options. Non-fossil sources like nuclear, wind, solar and geothermal energy will get us quite some way towards the path of stable carbon emissions.

Policy makers should abandon carbon-reduction negotiations and make agreements to seriously invest in research and development. As research spending would be much cheaper than carbon-emission cuts, there would be a much higher chance of political agreement, and a much higher probability of the promises being enacted. We have within our grasp alternative policy options that would truly leave the planet in a better state.
1. Why have past efforts to reduce carbon emissions failed ?
(A) Scientists were not interested in this field of research
(B) Global warming was not considered as a problem by the U.N.
(C) The cost of accomplishing this was too high
(D) Poor nations did not have the necessary knowledge to reduce carbon emissions
(E) None of these

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of climate engineering ?
(A) It is beneficial in the short term and also in the long term
(B) It can only be adopted by poor countries
(C) It has worsened problems like poverty and hunger in developing countries
(D) It is seen as less cost effective than other ways of reducing pollution
(E) It uses technology which pollutes the environment

3. According to the author, which of the following is/are the outcome/s of the meeting of world leaders in New York ?
(1) A resolution that carbon emissions will be reduced through climate engineering.
(2) Successful settlement of many conflicts regarding reduction of emissions.
(3) Developed countries have volunteered to spend over 12 per cent of their GDP on preventing global warming.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (3)
(D) All (1), (2) and (3)
(E) None of these

4. What does the author want to convey through the phrase ‘Nonfossil sources like nuclear, wind, solar and geothermal energy will get us quite some way towards the path of stable carbon emissions’ as given in the passage ?
(A) All countries should use non fossil sources of energy to be able to achieve high carbon emissions
(B) The use of non fossil sources of energy will be able to check the carbon emissions
(C) Non fossil sources of fuel may actually increase carbon emissions
(D) If we use such non fossil fuels, it will take a long time to reduce carbon emissions
(E) None of these

5. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
(A) Carbon emissions of poor countries are higher than those of rich ones
(B) Construction of dams is directly responsible for the starvation of millions
(C) The earth is in danger of extinction in a century
(D) There is a lack of consensus between rich and poor nations on the issue of reducing carbon emissions
(E) Countries have to spend a substantial amount of their GDP on climate change


6. What is the author’s opinion about agreement among countries in Kyoto ?
(A) Countries which signed this agreement had no intention of reducing carbon emissions
(B) The percentage of carbon emissions to be reduced was highest for developing countries
(C) Climate economists should not have supported this agreement
(D) It was a failure because developed countries backed out from the agreement
(E) None of these

7. What is the author’s solution to handling climate change ?
(A) Countries should use more expensive and long lasting ways of reducing carbon emissions
(B) Negotiations on climate change should be between scientists rather than between political leaders
(C) Countries should increase expenditure on research into ways of handling climate change
(D) The U.N. should finance climate research in developing countries
(E) Introduce economic sanctions against countries which do not reduce carbon emissions

8. Which of the following will be a suitable title for the given passage ?
(A) Risks of global warming
(B) The depletion of fossil fuel reserves
(C) Technology can fight global warming
(D) Global warming and decreasing GDPs
(E) The inefficient non carbon sources of energy

9. What is the author’s aim in promoting research into ‘marine cloud whitening’ ?
(A) To better understand how such technology can be utilized as an efficient solution to the problem of global warming
(B) To ensure that the climate scientists benefit financially
(C) To give developing nations an advantage over developed nations in fighting global warming
(D) To highlight the risks of such techniques
(E) To delay agreements on global warming for as long as possible

10. According to the author, what role will the rich nations play in reducing carbon emissions ?
(A) Pressurising poor nations to sign agreements on carbon cuts
(B) Funding carbon emission cuts in developing countries
(C) Diverting research funding from disease prevention to environment protection
(D) Spending trillions of dollars annually on non carbon energy research
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. BUY
(A) Accept
(B) Pay
(C) Provide
(D) Bargain
(E) Cost

12. STAGGERING
(A) Swaying
(B) Huge
(C) Shaking
(D) Unsteady
(E) Collapsing

13. STATE
(A) Express
(B) Mess
(C) Official
(D) Say
(E) Condition

Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. AUGMENTING
(A) Reducing
(B) Growing
(C) Channelising
(D) Criticising
(E) Supplementing

15. COMBATING
(A) Holding
(B) Forgiving
(C) Caring
(D) Supporting
(E) Fighting

Directions—(Q. 16–24) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence, the letter of that part will be the answer. If there is no error, mark (E) as the answer. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

16. India demonstrates its supremacy (A) / in space when it successfully (B) / launched its third satellite (C) / into orbit yesterday. (D) No error (E)

17. India needs a value education system (A) /who will inculcate values (B) / among the students and (C) / enrich their personalities. (D) No error (E)

18. Driven by the desire to save trees, (A) / residents of a locality (B) / has started using solar appliances (C) / for their everyday needs. (D) No error (E)

19. A large number of unmanned aircrafts (A) / being used by the military (B) / are suspected of having (C) / unsafe radio links. (D) No error (E)

20. Recent survey shows that (A) / 35 million children in the age group of (B) / 6 to 10 years have never (C) / attended no primary school. (D) No error (E)

21. Coal mines constitute (A) / a major percentage of the (B) / sources which cause damage (C) / on the environment. (D) No error (E)

22. A man who has been (A) / accused of fraud in (B) / an earlier job he will never be (C) / welcome in any other organization. (D) No error (E)

23. Worried about the continuing violence in the city, (A) / much students are set (B) (C) / to migrate to other cities / for higher education. (D) No error (E)

24. Many organizations have been offering (A) / attractive incentives to (B) / their employees in an attempt (C) / to boosting employee retention. (D) No error (E)

Directions—(Q. 25–29) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each statement should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and ‘No correction is required’, mark (E) as the answer.

25. In an attempt to grow economically, India plans to march towards an open economy by opened its doors to global markets.
(A) Open doors towards its
(B) Opening its doors to
(C) Open its doors in
(D) Opening their doors for
(E) No correction required

26. Though poverty is still rampant in India, economic growth and commercial development has served to reduce them substantially over the years.
(A) Has served to reduce it
(B) Is serving to reduce it
(C) Had served to reduce them
(D) Have served to reduce it
(E) No correction required

27. All witnesses of yesterday’s accident has been questioned by the police but none could identify the culprits.
(A) Every witness of yesterday’s
(B) All witnesses for yesterday’s
(C) Most witnesses of yesterday
(D) Many witnesses of yesterday
(E) No correction required

28. In spite of the rapid development of medical science, production of artificial blood has remained a distant dream for many scientists.
(A) Despite of the rapid
(B) As a result of the rapid
(C) In spite of some rapidly
(D) Because of the rapid
(E) No correction required

29. India has millions of job opportunities but there is a serious shortage of educated professionals whom are actually employable.
(A) Those are actually employed
(B) That is actually employed
(C) Who are actually employable
(D) Which is actually employed
(E) No correction required

Directions—(Q. 30–34) Rearrange the following sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
(1) The government too has not left any stone unturned in promoting the ‘go green’ concept among the construction industrialists.
(2) It has succeeded in luring the builders into ‘going green’ by these incentives, thus mutually benefiting the builders as well as the environment.
(3) It means that the construction of their buildings ensures energy efficiency, water conservation and use of recycled and renewable energy sources.
(4) It has offered many attractive packages, subsidies and tax benefits to the builders who follow this concept.
(5) As the construction industry revives from recession and begins to bloom once again, the latest trend to catch the eye of the developers is to ‘go green’.
(6) All these not only have a positive impact on the environment but also prove to be more economical for the builders as well as the residents in the long run.

30. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5

31. Which of the following sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

32. Which of the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) 3

33. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

34. Which of the following sentence should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6

Directions—(Q. 35–44) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

When we sit down for a meal of market-bought products, we like to think we’re getting a reasonable …(35)… of the body’s nutrient requirements, but studies show that because of our chemical intensive farming, the food that we have, does not …(36)… the vital nutrients that our ancestors enjoyed.

Plants …(37)… with the help of soluble chemical fertilisers get lazy and do not develop the deep, healthy roots systems that pull additional elements out of the …(38)… In addition, the micro-organisms that break down organic matter and minerals to be taken up by plant root are …(39)… by chemical bombardment and violent mechanised manipulation of their environment. Essentially, we’re getting robbed, and having to pay for it in …(40)… health, energy, longevity, and advancing medical bills.

Unfortunately, agriculture’s single-minded focus on increasing …(41)… at any cost over the last half-century created a blind spot where rapid …(42)… of the nutritional quality of our food has occurred. This decline has been observed to be quite …(43)… in some crops but has sadly gone largely …(44)… by scientists, farmers, government and consumers.

35. (A) yield
(B) number
(C) amount
(D) deficiency
(E) strength

36. (A) grow
(B) specify
(C) inhabit
(D) cultivate
(E) contain

37. (A) growing
(B) eaten
(C) suffering
(D) arising
(E) rising

38. (A) pesticides
(B) plants
(C) food
(D) soil
(E) crop

39. (A) increased
(B) absorbed
(C) added
(D) wounded
(E) killed

40. (A) improving
(B) declining
(C) better
(D) simplifying
(E) defective

41. (A) yields
(B) fertilisers
(C) chemicals
(D) quality
(E) soil

42. (A) immigration
(B) improvement
(C) return
(D) progression
(E) deterioration

43. (A) more
(B) inadequate
(C) significant
(D) inferior
(E) resistant

44. (A) improved
(B) unnoticed
(C) eradicated
(D) alarming
(E) unaware

Directions—(Q. 45–50) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

45. The ……… of his crime was a heavy blow as not only did his reputation …… but the business also declined.
(A) punishment, finished
(B) revelation, improve
(C) disclosure, suffer
(D) committing, lost
(E) realisation, hurt

46. The Secretaryship has been …… for a long time as nobody is ……… to undertake duties of the post.
(A) open, reluctant
(B) taken, interested
(C) empty, capable
(D) occupied, volunteered
(E) vacant, willing

47. The innocent man could have easily defendend himself but he ……… to speak as he was ……… of offending his friend.
(A) refused, afraid
(B) decided, unwilling
(C) intended, concerned
(D) declined, inclined
(E) denied, forced

48. ………… use of pesticides, especially DDT has been held responsible for the ……… population of vultures in various states across India.
(A) careless, uncontrolled
(B) multiple, increasing
(C) alarming, distinct
(D) indiscriminate, declining
(E) much, growing

49. Many rebels were mercilessly slain to ………… the rebellion but a few managed to ………… by hiding in woods and marshes.
(A) surpass, evade
(B) end, fight
(C) suppress, escape
(D) incite, run
(E) promote, revolt

50. Agriculture in India ……… over all other sectors because it plays a ………… role in the sociocultural life of its people.
(A) dominates, minor
(B) prevails, vital
(C) important, significant
(D) survives, minimal
(E) beats, critical

Answers :1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (E) 12. (B) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (E) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (C) 30. (E)
31. (C) 32. (A) 33. (B) 34. (E) 35. (C) 36. (E) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (E) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (E) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (B)

NEGATIVE MARKS IN BANK EXAMS

NEGATIVE MARKS IN BANK EXAMS

The concept of Negative marks for wrong answers was first introduced in competitive exams like UPSC,Entrance exams,CAT etc.,This was later adopted in bank exams for filtering the candidates to the next level.The candidates appearing for first time,seem to be more concerned about negative markings in bank exams and its impact in the final score.Here are some of the questions asked by our readers during the last few weeks.

Q : Why are Negative Marks awarded in Bank exams ?
A : The basic use of negative marks in competitive exams,bank exams & other important exams is to check the real knowledge capacity of the candidate,to avoid guessing in exams & to verify if the candidate really knows what he is answering.

Q: Does all bank exams have negative marks ?
A: No.Large banks recruiting in huge numbers will have negative marks for wrong answers in their preliminary test to decrease the number of candidates moving to the next level.(e.g.- SBI will deduct 1/4th marks(0.25) for each wrong answer in the objective tests for recruitment of 11000 clerks -2009).
Such information will be provided in the recruitment advertisement of the banks.

Q: Will I get negative marks if I don't answer any question ?
A: No.Negative marks will be awarded only incase of any wrong answers.So,if you have not attended a question,no marks will be reduced.

Q: How to avoid Negative marks in objective tests?
A: There is no specific method to avoid negative marks.Leaving the question unanswered in the only way to avoid negative marks.But,skipping too many unknown questions will lower your marks.

Q: So what to do incase if I don't know answers for many questions ?
A: In this case,the only option is to take risk & make some clever guesses.To make such a guess,you must have prepared something in all subjects,so that you can think of a probable answer for that question among the given choices.

We will be bringing more analysis on the concept of negative marks and tips to overtake negative marks in banks exams & competitive exams.

Saturday, June 19, 2010

CORPORATION BANK PO EXAM 09-05-2010

CORPORATION BANK PO EXAM 09-05-2010 CLICK HERE

SARVA UP GRAMINA BANK OFFICER EXAM 16-05-2010

SARVA UP GRAMINA BANK OFFICER EXAM 16-05-2010 CLICK HERE

Purvanchal Gramin Bank (PGB) Recruitment

Purvanchal Gramin Bank (PGB) ,sponsored by State Bank of India & owned by Govt.of India & Govt. of U.P operates in 7 districts.The bank has over 300 branches & employs close to 1500 people across its branches.Purvanchal Gramin Bank is recruiting for Officers & Office Assistants

Posts – Vacancies - Payscale:
1) Officer (Scale-I) – 73 posts – Rs.10000-18240
2) Office Assistants – 77 posts – Rs.4410-13210

Dates: Online registration of applications – 24.5.2010 to 24.6.2010
Written Exam for Officer posts - 1.08.2010 || Clerks - 8.08.2010

Eligibilityfor Officer Scale-I post,
* Should be within 18 –26 yrs of age, as on 1.4.2010
* Degree in any discipline from a recognized university
* Must be a resident of U.P & should be proficient in English, Hindi
* Candidates with knowledge of computers will be preferred.

for Officer Scale-I post,
* Should be within 18 –26 yrs of age, as on 1.4.2010
* Minimum 50% marks in HSC Exam of 10+2+3 pattern OR minimum of 60% marks in Matriculation/Senior School Certificate OR Degree in any discipline.
* Candidates with computer knowledge will be preferred.
* Must be a resident of UP & be proficient in English,Hindi .

Selection : The selection process of Purvanchal gramin bank recruitment involves Written Test(200 marks) & Interview (100 marks) for both posts.There is negative marks for each wrong answer in objective test.According the ratio of 1:4,around 290 for officers (scale 1) & 300 candidates for office assistants posts can be expected to get Interview call.

Application : Candidates interested to apply for the recruitment have to pay Rs.300(General/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) using the challan at any PGB or SBI branch.The online application has to be filled through the bank website, by mentioning the payment details & qualifications.

Refer : Candidates can read the complete notification of Purvanchal Gramin Bank Recruitment & apply online through the bank website here

Satpura Narmada Kshetriya Gramin Bank recruitment

Satpura Narmada Kshetriya Gramin Bank (SNKGB) formed in 2006 is jointly sponsored by Government of India, Government of MP & Central Bank of India.The bank operates in 11 districts across MP.Satpura Narmada Kshetriya Gramin Bank is currently recruiting for 112 Officers & 238 Clerks.

Position – Vacancy – Payscale :
Officers (Scale –1) – 112 posts – Rs.10,000 /–/ Rs.18240
Clerk cum Cashier – 238 posts – Rs.4410 /–/ 13210

Important Dates: Last date for receipt of applications – 30.06.2010
Written exam [Scale-1 Officer] – 05.09.2010 [Clerk posts] – 12.09.2010

Eligibility for Officers : Candidates interested in Officer posts,
* Age must be between 18yrs – 26yrs as on 01.01.2010
* Should posses a Degree(any discipline) from a recognized university
* Candidates with fluency in Hindi & knowledge in computers would be preferred

for Clerk positions :  Age between 18yrs to 26yrs as on 01.01.2010
* Must posses a Degree OR should have passed HSC exam(12th) with 50% OR min 60% in matriculation/senior school
* Knowledge in English & Hindi languages are necessary
* Candidates with knowledge in MS-Office software will be preferred in Interview.

Selection : The selection for Clerks & Officers posts will be through Written test & Interview.There is negative mark of 0.25 for each wrong answer. Based on the results of the written test,candidates will be called for Interview. ** Candidates must secure minimum 40% marks in each test paper .


Application : The application fee of Rs.300 or Rs.50(SC/STPWD) for Officers & Rs.250 or Rs.50 for Clerks must be paid by means of DD payable at Chhindwara.The application form has to be filled according to the format & should be sent along with DD,certificates etc., before 30.06.2010

Website : Candidates are requested to download & read the complete notification from the bank website here (PDF file) ,before applying

Friday, June 18, 2010

Krishna Grameena Bank Clerk Recruitment 2010

Krishna Grameena Bank, sponsored by State Bank of India, Govt of India & Karnataka operates in the state of Karnataka.The bank has more than 105 branches in the districts of Bidar & Gulbarga.Krishna Gramin Bank has announced recruitment for 83 Clerks
Post – Vacancies – Payscale:
Clerk cum Cashier cum Computer Operator – 83 posts – Rs.4410-/-/13210

Dates : Last date for receipt of applications – 5.07.2010
Written exam for clerk post – 29.08.2010

Eligibility : Candidates interested to apply for clerical posts in KGB, 
* Age limit : 18 – 26 yrs, as on 1.07.2010
* Pass in degree OR pass in 10+2(HSC) with 50% marks OR 60% in SSLC/SSC )OR Diploma in banking.
* Candidates with knowledge of computers & proficiency in English, Kannada are preferred.
* Should be a resident of Karnataka

Selection: The selection process for KGB recruitment involves a Written test & Interview.Candidates must secure minimum of 30% in each test & those with high marks would be called for Interview.Around 332 candidates (1:4 ratio) can be expected to be selected for Interview stage.

Application : The application fee of Rs.250(Gen/OBC) or Rs.50(SC/ST) has to be paid by DD from any scheduled commercial bank ,payable at Gulbarga.After payment,  candidates have to fill the application form in the given format & send it to the address mentioned in the notification before 5.07.2010 along with DD, copies of required certificates

Refer : Candidates can download Krishna grameena bank recruitment notification & application format from their website here

Thursday, June 17, 2010

NABARD Bank Officers Exam., 2008 Reasoning



NABARD Bank Officers Exam., 2008: Reasoning
(Held On 30–3–2008)


1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) Clove
(B) Cinnamon
(C) Pepper
(D) Cardamom
(E) Apricot

2. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXPERIMENT each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

3. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EOPR, using each letter only once ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

4. Pointing to a photograph Rasika said “He is the grandson of my grandmother’s only son.” How is the boy in photograph related to Rasika ?
(A) Son
(B) Nephew
(C) Brother
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

5. In a certain code ‘open the door’ is written as ‘ka te jo’ ‘door is closed’ is written as ‘jo pa ma’ and ‘this is good’ is written as ‘la ra pa’. What is the code for ‘closed’ ?
(A) ma
(B) pa
(C) jo
(D) ka
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) These questions are based on the following letter / number / symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions :
7 D 5 # A B 1 % K $ 4 E J F 3 * 2 H I @ L 6 Q U © 9 M T 8 W

6. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a number ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) K41
(B) *HF
(C) #B5
(D) M8©
(E) LQI

8. Which of the following pairs of elements does not have the second element, immediately followed by the first element ?
(A) 5#
(B) MT
(C) $4
(D) 3F
(E) @L

9. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and also immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

10. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
A # D $K1 3FE ?
(A) @I2
(B) *HI
(C) H2@
(D) HIL
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to
be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements :
Some shoes are socks.
All socks are towels.
All towels are bedsheets.
No bedsheet is blanket.
Conclusions :
I. No towel is blanket.
II. Some shoes are towels.
III. Some shoes are bedsheets.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

12. Statements :
Some fruits are flowers.
Some flowers are buds.
No bud is leaf.
All leaves are plants.
Conclusions :
I. No plant is bud.
II. Some plants are flowers.
III. Some buds are fruits.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only III follows
(E) None of these

13. Statements :
Some pearls are gems.
Some gems are diamonds.
All diamonds are rings.
All rings are bangles.
Conclusions :
I. Some bangles are rings.
II. All rings are diamonds.
III. All diamonds are bangles.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

14. Statements :
All chairs are tables.
All tables are telephones.
All telephones are cell phones.
No cell phone is computer.
Conclusions :
I. All cell phones are tables.
II. Some chairs are computers.
III. No chair is computer.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only either II or III follows
(E) None of these

15. Statements :
Some rocks are hills.
All hills are mountains.
All mountains are rivers.
No river is Canal.
Conclusions :
I. All rocks are rivers.
II. Some hills are canals.
III. Some rivers are canals.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II follows
(E) None follows

Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.

Eight friends Savita, Radhika, Amita, Nisha, Rani, Jyoti, Meeta and Anjali are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Savita is second to the right of Anjali, but is not a neighbour of Amita. Nisha is third to the left of Amita but is not next to Savita. Jyoti is second to the right of Rani and third to the left of Meeta.

16. Who is second to the left of Anjali ?
(A) Radhika
(B) Rani
(C) Amita
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these

17. Who is to the immediate right of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Radhika
(C) Meeta
(D) Jyoti or Radhika
(E) None of these

18. Which of the following is the correct position of Rani ?
(A) To the immediate right of Anjali
(B) To the immediate left of Anjali
(C) To the immediate right of Savita
(D) Next to Jyoti
(E) None of these

19. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of Nisha ?
(A) Jyoti and Meeta
(B) Radhika and Meeta
(C) Savita and Jyoti
(D) Radhika and Jyoti
(E) None of these

20. Who is to the immediate left of Savita ?
(A) Jyoti
(B) Anjali
(C) Rani
(D) Meeta
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers is to be answered. The operations of numbers progress
from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit even number is followed by another even number the first one is to be divided by the second one.
(ii) If an even number is followed by a prime number, the two are to be multiplied.
(iii) If an odd number is followed by another odd number the two are be added.
(iv) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is the perfect square, the second number is to be subtracted from the first number.
(v) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number which is not the perfect square, the first number is to be divided by the second number.

21. 16 7 25
m 23 22
If ‘m’ is the resultant of the first row, what the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 132
(B) 88
(C) 122
(D) 78
(E) None of these

22. 97 45 71
48 8 11
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(A) 68
(B) 19
(C) 147
(D) 64
(E) None of these

23. 125 64 33
282 x 39
If ‘x’ is resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 45
(B) 42
(C) 39
(D) 36
(E) None of these

24. 84 14 13
360 24 17
What the difference between the resultant of the first row and the second row ?
(A) 100
(B) 46
(C) 56 (D) 90
(E) None of these

25. 24 7 81
x 27 19
If ‘x’ is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 87
(B) 114
(C) 4
(D) 6
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below it—
Seven professionals A, B, C, D, E, F and G are practicing their professions in different cities Chennai, Banglore, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Ahmedabad, Jaipur and Bhubaneshwar not necessarily in the same order. Each has a different profession Doctor, Engineer, Pharmacist, Lawyer, Counsellor, Professor and Artist not necessarily in the same order.

A is a Pharmacist and practises in Bhubaneshwar. D practises in Banglore but is not a Doctor or an Artist. The one who practises in Hyderabad is a Professor. G is a
Counsellor and does not practise in Mumbai or Chennai. E is a Lawyer and practises in Ahmedabad. F practises in Chennai but is not an artist. C practises in Mumbai.

26. What is D’s profession ?
(A) Doctor
(B) Professor
(C) Engineer
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

27. Who is the professor ?
(A) B
(B) C
(C) D
(D) E
(E) None of these

28. Which of the following combinations of profession and place is correct ?
(A) Pharmacist—Jaipur
(B) Engineer—Chennai
(C) Doctor—Bangalore
(D) Artist—Mumbai
(E) None of these

29. Which of the following persons work in Jaipur ?
(A) B
(B) G
(C) C
(D) B or G
(E) None of these

30. Who is the Doctor ?
(A) D
(B) B
(C) C
(D) B or C
(E) None of these

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing. Give answer :
(A) If only I follows.
(B) If only II follows.
(C) If either I or II follows.
(D) If neither I nor II follows.
(E) If both I and II follow.

31. Statement : Cases of road accidents are increasing constantly, particularly in the urban areas.
Courses of action :
I. Transport Authorities in the urban areas should impose stringent norms for maintenance of vehicles.
II. Traffic police should severely punish those found to be violating traffic rules.

32. Statement : Despite good economic progress of the country, significant number of undernourished children has been observed in the rural parts of the country.
Courses of action :
I. Government should increase Wealth Tax/Income Tax and use that money for upliftment of the deprived class.
II. Govt. should introduce schemes like free meals in primary schools and make primary education compulsory.

33. Statement : Launching of new brands of four wheelers is adding to the traffic congestion in the metro cities.
Courses of action :
I. Public should be encouraged to share their private vehicles while travelling to their work places.
II. Govt. should levy heavy taxes on motor cars in metro cities.

34. Statement : Increasing levels of air-pollution is creating healthhazards for people living in the cities.
Courses of action :
I. All industries should be shifted to the outskirts of the cities.
II. Transport Authorities should take steps for converting all public transport vehicles to run on CNG.

35. Statement : Large number of college students are found to be focusing more on fashion than on studies.
Courses of action :
I. Colleges should impose restrictions on use of fashionable clothes and accessories.
II. Colleges should keep the students busy enough with studies, so that they don’t find time for other things like fashion.

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes
or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer :
(A) If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
(B) If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect.
(C) If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(E) If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.

36. (A) Parents in the locality decided to stop sending their children to school by privatevehicles.
(B) A major accident of a private van carrying school children lead to deaths of few and injuries for many children.

37. (A) The city observed lowest temperature of the last decade accompanied by heavy fog during the week.
(B) Most of the flights from the city were indefinitely delayed causing panic among the passengers.

38. (A) In the past few years the job market has improved for the professionally qualified youth.
(B) Many youth are not able to get jobs upto their expectations.

39. (A) During peak hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing traffic jams in most parts of the city.
(B) Many companies are planning to launch low priced vehicles.

40. (A) During evening hours roads are overcrowded with vehicles causing very slow movement of vehicles.
(B) Pollution level in the air has substantially increased in the recent past.

Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) In each of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued ?





Answers
1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (E) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (E)
31. (B) 32. (B) 33. (E) 34. (E) 35. (E) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (D)
41. (E) 42. (E) 43. (B) 44. (B) 45. (A)