Sunday, April 12, 2015

State Bank of India (SBI) Recruitment of 2000 Probationary Officers

SBI invited Online Applications from eligible Indian Citizens for appointment as Probationary Officers (POs) in State Bank of India. Candidates selected are liable to be posted anywhere in India. Preliminary Examination for Selection of PO will be conducted tentatively in June 2015.

Eligible candidates who willing to apply may submit their Online Application through the Official SBI Website statebankofindia.com or sbi.co.in from 13-04-2015 to 02-05-2015.


For details regarding age limit, eligibility, educational qualifications, how to apply, selection procedure and application form etc. Candidates may refer the notification given below.


State Bank of India (SBI) 2,000 Probationary Officer (PO) Vacancy 2015 Details :


Total No. of Post : 2,000 Posts

Name Of the Post : Probationary Officer (PO)

Pay Scale : Rs. 14500-25700/- basic pay Rs.16,900/-


Age Limit : 

Candidate age should not below 21 years and not above 30 years as on 01-04-2015 i.e candidates must have been born not earlier than 02-04-1985 and not later than 01-04-1994 (both days inclusive)

Educational Qualification :

Candidate who wish to apply must possess Graduation in any discipline from a recognised University or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central Government. Those who are in the Final year/ Semester of their Graduation may also apply provisionally subject to the condition that, if called for interview, they will have to produce proof of having passed the graduation examination on or before 01-09-2015.

Selection Process :

Candidate will be selected on the basis of their performance in Preliminary Examination, Main Examination, Group Discussion & Interview

Application Fee :

Candidates who wish to apply will have to pay Rs.100/- for SC/ST/PWD & Rs. 600/- for General and Others Candidates through online mode only by using Debit Cards (RuPay/Visa/MasterCard/Maestro), Credit Cards, Internet Banking, IMPS, Cash Cards/ Mobile Wallets by providing information as asked on the screen.

Procedure to Apply :

The Aspiring applicants satisfying the eligibility criteria in all respect can submit their application only through ON-LINE mode. The On-line registration of applications is made available on Official SBI Website www.statebankofindia.com or www.sbi.co.in from 13-04-2015 to 02-05-2015.



Important dates :

  • Starting Date for Submission of Online Application : 13-04-2015
  • Last Date for Submission of Online Application : 02-05-2015
  • Payment of Fees (ONLINE) : 13-04-2015 to 02-05-2015
  • Date of Preliminary Examination : June 2015 (Tentatively)


More Details :

Candidates are advised to read Official Notification/Advertisement for details regarding Age limit, Educational Qualification, Physical Standards, Physical Test, General Information, Eligibility Conditions, the Syllabus and Scheme of Examination, Examination Centre, Procedure of Selection, Pay Scale, Examination Fee/Application Fee, How to apply Online/Offline, Concession and other important instructions etc.


Official Advertisement/Notification :

Click here for View Advertisement

Click here for Apply Online

Click here for Official Website

Sunday, January 25, 2015

Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge Practice Questions

1. Catalogues, mailings, telemarketing etc can be classified as:
1) Advertising
2) Sales promotion
3) Public relation
4) Direct marketing
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is a function of Packaging?
1) Protection
2) Promotion
3) Convenience
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

3. Which of the following is not a level of product?
1) Core
2) Augmented
3) Potential
4) Fragmented
5) None of the above

4. A Brand or part of the Brand which is legally protected is called as ___
1) Trade Mark
2) Brand Equity
3) Brand Name
4) Brand Valuation
5) None of the above

5. Which of the following is related to Brand Name?
1) Term
2) Words
3) Letters
4) Both 2 & 3
5) None of the above

6. Introduction, Growth ___ & ___ are the four stages of Product Life Cycle.
1) Maturity, Saturation
2) Maturity, Decline
3) Decline, Maturity
4) Saturation, Maturity
5) None of the above

7. A pure tangible good:
1) Bread
2) Milk
3) Books
4) Biscuits
5) All of the above

8. A stage in New Product Development:
1) Idea generation/ Screening
2) Business analysis
3) Developing & testing the product
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

9. ______ may favour buying a Product which is in its decline stage.
1) Innovators
2) Middle majority
3) Dare-devils
4) Laggards
5) None of the above

10. Low-price and high promotional spending is likely to succeed in _____markets.
1) Large
2) Small
3) International
4) Local
5) National

11. Which of the following are not the levels of the product under the customer value hierarchy?
1) Core benefit
2) Expected product
3) Augmented product
4) Potential product
5) None of these

12. Which of the following is not an element of MIS (Marketing Information System)?
1) Marketing Research
2) Decision Support System
3) Production Monitoring System
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

13. Price determination depends on:
1) Market demand for the product/ service
2) Perceived value of the product/ service
3) Buyer Psychology
4) Government Policy
5) Any of the above

14. A seller offering to the buyers, a range of products, is called __
1) Product Mix
2) Product lines
3) Product item
4) Potential product
5) None of these

15. A person who acts on behalf of some other person to sell a product/ service is known as ____
1) Principal
2) Dinar
3) Labour
4) Agent
5) Middleman

16. _____ has the advantage of being high in selectivity; low cost, immediacy and interactive
capabilities?
1) Direct mail
2) Outdoor
3) Online
4) Radio
5) None of these

17. The general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means:
1) Internet commerce
2) Web commerce
3) Computer commerce
4) Electronic commerce
5) None of these

18. When producers, wholesalers and retailers are in a unified system, they comprise a ___
1) Conventional marketing system
2) Power-based marketing system
3) Horizontal marketing system
4) Vertical marketing system
5) None of these

19. The practice of going after a large share of a smaller market:
1) Undifferentiated marketing
2) Differentiated marketing
3) Concentrated marketing
4) Turbo marketing
5) None of the above

20. Which of the following is not a transmission medium?
1) Telephone lines
2) Coaxial cables
3) Modem
4) Microwave systems
5) Hardware systems

21. Identify the IP address from the following:
1) 300.215.317.3
2) 302.215@417.5
3) 202.50.20.148
4) 202-50-20-148
5) 101.50. 2 0.148

22. Memory which can be read only is called ____.
1) RAM
2) Secondary Memory
3) EERAM
4) Dynamic Memory
5) ROM

23. Another name of endless loop:
1) Data traffic pattern
2) Data loop
3) Infinite loop
4) Feedback loop
5) Slot

24. Most popular hardware for multimedia creations:
1) PCs
2) Minicomputers
3) Mainframe Computers
4) WANs
5) Super Computers

25. The _____ settings are automatic and standard.
1) Default
2) CPU
3) Peripheral
4) User-friendly
5) None of the above

26. Which of the following controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system?
1) Language translator
2) Platform
3) User interface
4) Icon
5) None

27. The ___ folder retains copies of messages that you have started but are not yet ready to send.
1) Drafts
2) Outbox
3) Address Book
4) Sent Items
5) Inbox

28. Codes consisting of lines of varying widths or lengths that are computer-readable are known as:
1) An ASCII code
2) A magnetic tape
3) An OCR scanner
4) A bar code
5) None of these

29. A collaborative network that uses Internet Technology to link business with their suppliers is?
1) Internet
2) Intranet
3) Extranet
4) WAN
5) LAN

30. A passive threat to computer security:
1) Malicious Intent
2) Sabotage
3) Accidental Errors
4) Espionage Agents
5) None of these

31. Which of the following is not a worksheet design criterion?
1) Efficiency
2) Adaptability
3) Description
4) Clarity
5) Capacity

32. A micro program is sequencer perform the operation:
1) Read
2) Write
3) Execute
4) Read and execute
5) Read and write

33. In Ms-Dos what command you will use to display system date?
1) Date
2) Ver
3) Disk
4) Format
5) Edit

34. Personnel, who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment refers to:
1) Console-operator
2) Programmer
3) People ware
4) System Analyst
5) Tester

35. The batch file uses the extension:
1) .BAT
2) .DOC
3) .PRG
4) .DOS
5) .DOEX

36. Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communication needs?
1) Front end processor
2) Multiplexer
3) Controller
4) Concentrator
5) All of the above

37. Data warehousing is a system of storing data on long term basis (say 5-10 years). It is ____:
1) Customer oriented and integrated
2) Non-volatile and time variant
3) Devoid of inconsistencies
4) All of the above
5) None of the above

38. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as ___
1) Sorting
2) Merging
3) Inserting
4) Deleting
5) Traversal

39. High density double sided floppy disks could store _____ of data.
1) 1.40 MB
2) 1.44 GB
3) 1.40 GB
4) 1.44 MB
5) 1.80 MB

40. The output quality of a printer is measured by:
1) Dot per sq. inch
2) Dot per inch
3) Dots printed per unit time
4) Dot per half inch
5) All of the above

ANSWERS:
1) 4, 2) 4, 3) 4, 4) 1, 5) 4, 6) 2, 7) 5, 8) 4, 9) 4, 10) 1,
11) 5, 12) 5, 13) 5, 14) 1, 15) 4, 16) 3, 17) 4, 18) 4,  19) 3,  20) 3,
21) 3,  22) 5,  23) 3,  24) 1,  25) 1, 26) 3,  27) 2,  28) 4,  29) 3, 30) 3
31) 3,  32) 4,  33) 1, 34) 3,  35) 1, 36) 5, 37) 4, 38) 5, 39) 4, 40) 2

Marketing Aptitude / Computer Knowledge Practice Questions for Bank Exams

1. Which of the following is not true about computer files?
1) They are collections of data
2) Every file has a filename
3) A file extension is established by the user to indicate computer on which it was created
4) All files contain data
5) None of these

2. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
1) Word
2) Printer
3) Monitor
4) Mouse
5) Scanner

3. Which of the following is a secondary memory device?
1) Keyboard
2) Disk
3) ALU
4) Mouse
5) Printer

4. The result of a formula in a cell is the ......
1) label
2) value
3) range
4) displayed value
5) None of these

5. Which of the following is not a storage medium?
1) hard disk
2) flash drive
3) DVD
4) CD
5) monitor

6. Choose the odd one out ............
1) Micro Computer
2) Minicomputer
3) Super Computer
4) Notebook Computer
5) Digital Computer

7. The ALU performs ................ operations.
1) logic
2) ASCII
3) algorithm-based
4) logarithm-based
5) final operations

8. ............ is the part of the computer that does the arithmetical calculations.
1) OS
2) ALU
3) CPU
4) Memory
5) Printer

9. In a sequence of events that takes place in an instruction cycle, the first cycle is ......
1) Story cycle
2) Execute cycle
3) Fetch cycle
4) Decode cycle
5) Code cycle

10. Peripheral devices such as printers and plotters are considered to be ............
1) hardware
2) software
3) data
4) information
5) None of these

11. Which of the following Excel charts represents only one value for each variable?
1) function
2) line
3) pie
4) bar
5) None

12. To see the document before the printout is taken, use ............
1) Insert Table
2) Paste
3) Format Painter
4) Cut
5) Print Preview

13. ALU works on the instructions and data held in the ...........
1) Notebook
2) Registers
3) Copy Pad
4) I/O devices
5) None of these

14. To move data from one part of the document to another, following is used .............
1) Cut and Paste
2) Copy and Paste
3) Cut and Delete
4) Copy and Undo
5) Cut and Insert

15. Another name for a pre-programmed formula in Excel is ...............
1) range
2) graph
3) function
4) cell
5) None of these

16. To save a document for the first time, ................ option is used
1) Save as
2) Save first
3) Save on
4) Copy
5) Paste

17. What is a device that can change images into codes for the computer?
1) mouse
2) printer
3) joystick
4) keyboard
5) scanner

18. Two basic types of graphics used in Word 2000 are .........
1) Auto shapes and Clip Art
2) Header and Footer
3) Drawing Objects and Pictures
4) Spelling and Grammer
5) Word Count

19. User can use .......... commands to search for and correct words in a document.
1) Print and Print Preview
2) Header and Footer
3) Find and Replace
4) Spelling and Grammer
5) Copy and Paste

20. What is the advantage of using basic HTML to create a document?
1) HTML is very easy to use
2) The document can be displayed by all word processors
3) The document can be displayed by all programs
4) The document can be displayed by all browsers
5) None of these

21. Which of the following is not correct with regard to Marketing?
1) Marketing is a management function
2) Marketing is a philosophy
3) Marketing is not related to business activity alone
4) Marketing means selling.
5) Objective of marketing is to achieve customer satisfaction.

22. Consumer may be defined as one who buys...
1) Goods
2) Services
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 nor 2
5) None

23. Which of the following is a part of Marketing Management?
1) Identification of Bbusiness opportunities
2) Understanding the customer needs
3) Producing according to customer needs
4) Delivering as per customer convenience
5) All the above

24. ............. describes changes in an individual's behaviour arising from experience.
1) Modeling
2) Motivation
3) Perception
4) Learning
5) None of the above

25. Below are the four alternatives showing stages of a consumer in arriving at a decision to purchase or reject a new product. Arrange them order wise.
a) Interest
b) Trail
c) Awareness
d) Evaluations
1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
2) (c), (a), (d), (b)
3) (c), (a), (b), (d)
4) (a), (d), (b), (c)
5) None of these

26. If a company's objective were to reach masses of buyers that were geographically dispersed at a low cost per low cost per exposure, the company would likely choose which of the following promotion forms?
1) Advertising
2) Personal selling
3) Public relations
4) Sales promotion
5) None of the above

27. Using a successful brand name to introduce additional items in a given product category under the same brand name (such as new flavours, forms, colours, added ingredients, or package sizes) is called a(n):
1) Line extension
2) Brand extension
3) Multibranding
4) New brands
5) None of these

28. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or need is called a(n):
1) Idea
2) Demand
3) Product
4) Service
5) None of these

29. If Surf − Excel is three pack sizes of 200 grams, 500 grams, 1 kg and are available in two types of packages. What is the product depth:
1) Two
2) Three
3) Six
4) Eight
5) Nine

30. ............. is the general term for a buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means.
1) Internet commerce
2) Web commerce
3) Computer commerce
4) Electronic commerce
5) None of the above

31. When a company enters a new product category for which its current brand names are not appropriate, it will likely follow which of the following brand strategies?
1) Product extension
2) Line extension
3) Market targeting
4) Market positioning
5) None of the above

32. In terms of special product life cycles, a .......... is a basic and distinctive mode of expression.
1) Genre
2) Style
3) Fashion
4) Fad
5) None of the above

33. ........ consists of dividing a market into distinct groups of buyers on the basis of needs, characteristics or behaviour who might require separate products or marketing mixes.
1) Product differentiation
2) Market segmentation
3) Market targeting
4) Market positioning
5) None of the above

34. ......... is the process of evaluating each market segment's attractiveness and selecting one or more segments to enter.
1) Mass Marketing
2) Market Segmentation
3) Market Targeting
4) Market Positioning
5) None of the above

35. ....... factors are the most popular bases for segmenting customer groups.
1) Geographic
2) Demographic
3) Psychographic
4) Behavioural
5) None

36. When an international seller sells a plant, equipment, or technology to another country and agrees to take payment in the resulting products, it is called .........
1) Barter
2) Buy - back
3) Counter purchase
4) Like-value exchange
5) None of these

37. The stage in the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product awareness and trial is the:
1) Decline stage
2) Introducing stage
3) Growth stage
4) Maturity stage
5) None

38. A ...... is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion to move the product through channels.
1) Push strategy
2) Pull strategy
3) Blocking strategy
4) Integrated strategy
5) None of these

39. A(n) ...... is a retail store that carries a narrow product line with a deep assortment within that line.
1) Shopping goods store
2) Convenience store
3) Speciality store
4) Department store
5) None of these

40. The term "Globalization" means .......
1) Opening the economy for world trade
2) Closing the economy
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 or 2
5) None of these

ANSWERS:
1-3, 2-1, 3-2, 4-2, 5-5, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-3, 10-1
11-3, 12-5, 13-2, 14-1, 15-3, 16-1, 17-5, 18-1, 19-4, 20-1
21-4, 22-5, 23-5, 24-4, 25-2, 26-1, 27-1, 28-3, 29-3, 30-4
31-4, 32-2, 33-2, 34-3, 35-2, 36-3, 37-2, 38-1, 39-3, 40-1

MARKETING KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. The term marketing refers to:
a) New product concepts and improvements
b) Advertising and promotion activities
c) A philosophy that stresses more on customer value and satisfaction
d) Planning sales campaigns
e) None of these

2. In the history of marketing, when did the production period end?
a) In the late 1800s
b) In the early 1900s
c) In the 1920s
d) After the end of the Second World War
e) None of these

3. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase 'a stronger focus on social and ethical concerns in marketing' is characteristic of the ____ period.
a) production
b) sales
c) marketing
d) societal marketing
e) None of these

4. Which skills and capabilities will marketers need to increasingly have?
a) Market research
b) Digital and social media marketing
c) Strategic marketing
d) Sales
e) None of these

5. Which of the following is not part of the external marketing environment?
a) Political
b) Legal
c) Product
d) Socio-cultural
e) None of these

6. Tobacco advertising is now virtually banned in all marketing communication forms in many countries around the world. This can be explained as an influence of:
a) Technological environment
b) Legal environment
c) Economic environment
d) Ecological environment
e) None of these

7. Afirm has decided to alter its pricing and promotional strategies in response to slower than expected job growth and declining personal incomes. The firm is responding to changes in it's:
a) Socio-cultural environment
b) Political environment
c) Economic environment
d) Competitive environment
e) None of these

8. The process of collecting information about the external marketing environment is:
a) Environmental management
b) Environmental scanning
c) Marketing management
d) Marketing research
e) None of these

9. Which is NOT classified in buy classes?
a) New task
b) Information gathering
c) Modified re-buy
d) Straight re-buy
e) None of these

10. With respect to consumer behaviour, one's friends and relatives could be considered a/an:
a) Impersonal influence
b) Reference group influence
c) Perceptual influence
d) Institutional influence
e) None of these

11. Which of the following is not part of the consumer proposition acquisition process?
a) Motive development
b) Information gathering
c) Proposition evaluation
d) Perception
e) None of these

12. The purchasing department reorders on a routine basis, very often working from an approved list of suppliers. This is referred to as:
a) Straight re-buy
b) New task
c) Modified re-buy
d) Routine buying
e) None of these

13. Which sampling techniques are often selected in qualitative research?
a) Non-probability sampling
b) Probability sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Random sampling
e) None of these

14. What is the term used to describe the degree to which the data elicited in a study is replicated in a repeat study?
a) Replication
b) Pre-code
c) Reliability
d) Convenience
e) None of these

15. One thing that is usually true of focus groups is that:
a) Most groups involve a small number of participants
b) They usually average 5 to 10 minutes in length
c) The moderator's job is to keep the group busy for the entire time and not let anyone leave
d) The questions used are highly structured and response-driven
e) None of these

16. Which type of research methods are designed to elicit responses to predetermined, standardized questions from a large number of respondents?
a) Quantitative
b) Qualitative
c) Non-probability
d) Probability
e) None of these

17. The ____ process commences at corporate level. Here the organization sets out its overall mission, purpose and values.
a) researching
b) strategic planning
c) controlling
d) managing
e) None of these

18. A statement about what an organization wants to become, which sets out an organization's future, is referred to as:
a) Mission
b) Values
c) Organizational goals
d) Vision
e) None of these

19. Astatement that sets out what the organization wishes to achieve in the long term is referred to as:
a) Mission
b) Vision
c) Values
d) Strategic context
e) None of these

20. Organizational values are important because they ___.
a) help shape mission statements
b) help increase sales
c) help guide behaviour and the recruitment and selection decisions
d) help define market research
e) None of these

21. A commonly used basis for segmenting consumer markets:
a) Organizational size
b) Demographics
c) Product type
d) Price
e) None of these

22. Which of the following is not an example of a behavioural variable?
a) Product usage
b) Media usage
c) Purchase occasion
d) Personality
e) None of these

23. ACORN, a segmentation analysis technique, stands for which of the following?
a) A Corresponding Official Residential Notation
b) A Classification of Reported Nationals
c) A Classification of Residential Neighbourhood
d) A Countrywide Official Resources Navigation
e) None of these

24. The family life cycle:
a) is a way to apply psychographic segmentation
b) refers to the process of family formation and dissolution
c) provides insights into the relationships among age, occupation, income and housing
d) is composed of the 11 stages of personal growth from infancy to retirement
e) None of these

25. Offerings move through a sequential, pre-determined pattern of development similar to the biological path that life forms follow. This is the concept of:
a) Process of diffusion
b) New product development
c) Product life cycle
d) Brand management
e) None of these

26. Which of the following is NOT a service innovation strategy?
a) Branded service innovation
b) Established service innovation
c) Incremental service innovation
d) Radical service innovation
e) None of these

27. ____ is concerned with value creation generated through novel or unusual service concepts.
a) Established service innovation
b) Radical service innovation
c) Generic service innovation
d) Incremental service innovation
e) None of these

28. At the highest end of innovation maturity, firms seek to integrate the services dimension as part of their total offer. This is known as:
a) Servitization
b) Reutilization
c) Diffusion
d) Productization
e) None of these

29. In marketing terms, ____ refers to what we get for what we pay.
a) Revenue
b) Cost
c) Value
d) Product
e) None of these

30. ____ act as cues by indicating to a potential customer that there is a bargain to be had.
a) Odd-number pricing
b) Sale signs
c) Relative price
d) Price surplus
e) None of these

31. ____vary according to the number of units of goods made or services sold.
a) Product assets
b) Price elasticity
c) Fixed costs
d) Variable costs
e) None of these

32. Costs which do not vary according to the number of units of product made or service sold:
a) Fixed costs
b) Moving assets
c) Working capital
d) Fixed capital
e) None of these

33. This is a hierarchy of effects or sequential model used to explain how advertising works:
a) ADD
b) AIDA
c) PESTLE
d) SWOT
e) None of these

34. AIDA stands for Awareness, ___, Desire and _____.
a) Interest; Action
b) Intensity; Appeal
c) Involvement; Action
d) Involvement; Appeal
e) None of these

35. Marketing communications is used to achieve one of two principal goals. The first concerns the
development of brand values. What is the other goal?
a) Increasing sales
b) Informing about products
c) Changing the behavior of target audiences
d) Channeling communication tools
e) None of these

36. Sharing of meaning created through the transmission of information:
a) Communication
b) Noise
c) Transfer
d) Understanding
e) None of these

37. Users are able to create content and become more involved with a brand through:
a) Door to door
b) Online communities
c) Direct mail
d) Telemarketing
e) None of these

38. A commercial activity, whereby one party permits another an opportunity to exploit an association with a target audience in return for funds, services or resources is referred to as:
a) Advertising
b) Exchange
c) Sponsorship
d) Public relations
e) None

39. These sell directly to end consumers and may purchase directly from manufacturers and/or deal with wholesalers:
a) Distributors
b) Franchising
c) Merchant
d) Retailers
e) None of these

40. These store goods for moderate to long periods:
a) Storage warehouses
b) Distribution centres
c) Haulage transport
d) Electronic data interchange
e) None of these

ANSWERS:
1) c; 2) c; 3) d; 4) b; 5) c; 6) b; 7) c; 8) b; 9) b; 10) b;
11) d; 12) a; 13) a; 14) c; 15) a; 16) a; 17) b; 18) d; 19) a; 20) c;
21) b; 22) d; 23) c; 24) b; 25) c; 26) a; 27) b; 28) a; 29) c; 30) b;
31) d; 32) a; 33) b; 34) a; 35) c; 36) a; 37) b; 38) c; 39) d; 40) a.

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE PRACTICE MCQs FOR ALL BANK EXAMS

1. Connectivity is a concept related to
a) Transmitting information, either by computer or by phone
b) The interconnections within a computer
c) Using computer networks to link people and resources
d) Being in an active session with your computer
e) All the above

2. One of the most dramatic changes in connectivity and communications in the past five years has been _______
a) Mobile or wireless telephones
b) public and private discussion
c) Satellite uplinks
d) running programs on remote computers
e) land line phones

3. The four basic elements of any communication system include
a) peer-to-peer, videoconferencing, online photo-conferencing, net optical
b) Sending and receiving devices, communication channel, connection device, and data transmission specifications
c) Telephone lines, coaxial cables, fiber-optic cables, and communication channel
d) Software, hardware, communication channel, network
e) Telephone lines, peer-to-peer, videoconferencing

4. An older type of data communications channel, using multiple copper wires, is called ___ technology.
a) Microwave
b) fiber-optic cable
c) coaxial cable
d) twisted pair
e) wireless

5. A communications channel that is made up of a single copper core with a ground sheath around
it is called a ________.
a) Twisted pair channels
b) microwave
c) coaxial cable
d) fiber-optic cable
e) beam cable

6. Data is transmitted using light through a(n) ________ cable.
a) Twisted pair
b) fiber-optic
c) coaxial
d) microwave
e) all the above

7. Which physical connection is the fastest?
a) Twisted pair
b) coaxial cable
c) fiber-optics
d) microwaves
e) all are equal

8. Communication in a straight line is accomplished using ________.
a) Twisted pairs
b) fiber-optics
c) coaxial cables
d) infrared
e) microwaves

9. Most Web-enabled devices follow a standard known as
a) FireWire
b) Bluetooth
c) TCP/IP
d) Wi-Fi
e) Blue band

10. A relatively new technology that allows wireless connectivity is called ________.
a) Bluetooth
b) Black tooth
c) Blue band
d) Broadband
e) Wi-Fi

11. Bluetooth is a type of radio wave information transmission system that is good for about
a) 30 feet
b) 30 yards
c) 30 miles
d) 300 miles
e) 3000 yards

12. The telephone is an example of a(n) ________ signal.
a) analog
b) digital
c) modulated
d) demodulated
e) debug

13. Acredit card-sized expansion board that is inserted into portable computers that connects the modem to the telephone wall jack is the ________.
a) Internal modem
b) External modem
c) PC Card modem
d) Wireless modem
e) Dongle

14. A modem that is contained within the system unit is called a(n) ________ modem.
a) external
b) internal
c) wireless
d) Wi-Fi
e) Cable

15. A modem that doesn't need to be connected to a telephone line is the ________ modem.
a) external
b) internal
c) Broad band
d) DSL
e) wireless

16. Aspecial high-speed line used by large corporations to support digital communications is known as
a) satellite/air connection service lines
b) cable modems
c) Digital subscriber lines
d) T1, T2, T3 and T4 lines
e) All the above

17. An affordable technology that uses existing telephone lines to provide high-speed connections is called ________.
a) ISDN
b) microwave
c) cable modem
d) DSL
e) None of these

18. The capacity of a communication channel is measured in
a) Bandwidth
b) bit capacity
c) baud rate
d) data flow
e) baud flow

19. Voice band ________
a) Allows the user to download messages
b) is used for standard telephone communication
c) Is used in special leased lines to connect minicomputers and mainframes
d) Provides a high-speed communication channel
e) All the above

20. The greatest capacity for data transmission happens in ________ devices.
a) Voice band
b) medium band
c) big band
d) mega-band
e) broadband

21. The rules for exchanging data between computers are called
a) Interconnections
b) synchronous packages
c) Protocols
d) data transmission synchronization
e) rolls

22. The standard protocol for the Internet is___
a) TCP
b) IP protocol
c) IP address
d) TCP/IP
e) None

23. ______ is the process of breaking down information sent or transmitted across the Internet into
small parts called packets.
a) Protocol
b) bandwidth
c) reformatting
d) identification
e) calling

24. The systems developed to automatically translate text-based addresses to numeric IP addresses
is called________
a) DSL
b) DNS
c) SNL
d) SDN
e) SOD

25. A computer network must contain at least this number of computers.
a) Two
b) A few
c) Twenty
d) Hundreds
e) Three

26. Two or more computers connected so that they can communicate with each other and share information is called a______
a) Satellite
b) protocol
c) broadcast
d) Wi-Fi
e) network

27. Any device that is connected to a network is called a_______
a) Client
b) node
c) server
d) manager
e) HR

28. A device, connected to a network, that requests resources available from other devices is called a
a) User
b) Server
c) Host
d) NOS
e) Client

29. A device, connected to a network, that shares resources with other nodes is called a________
a) Client
b) server
c) host
d) NOS
e) User

30. The acronym NOS refers to the
a) Operating system on the clients
b) Network order system, or topology
c) Operating system of the network
d) network architecture
e) all the above

ANSWERS:
1) c 2) a 3) b 4) d 5) c 6) b 7) c 8) d 9) d 10) a
11) a 12) a 13) c 14) b 15) e 16) d 17) d 18) a 19) b 20) e
21) c 22) d 23) c 24) b 25) a 26) e 27) b 28) e 29) b 30) c

Monday, November 17, 2014

Associate Banks of State Bank of India (SBI) Recruitment of 6425 Clerical Cadre Posts

Applications are invited for appointment in clerical cadre in Associate Banks of State Bank of India.
Clerical Cadre: 6425 Posts
  1. State Bank of Mysore: 725 Posts
  2. State Bank of Patiala: 1200 Posts
  3. State Bank of Travancore: 1300 Posts
  4. State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur: 1000 Posts
  5. State Bank of Hyderabad: 2200 Posts

Qualification (As on 01/12/2014):
 
Degree (Graduation level) from recognised university, or any equivalent qualification recognised as such by the Central/ State Government.
Age: (As on 01/12/2014): 20 - 28 years
Selection Procedure: Online Test & Interview.
Online Test:
  • The test will be online objective type, consisting of: i). General Awareness, ii). General English, iii). Quantitative Aptitude, iv). Reasoning Ability, v). Marketing Aptitude/ Computer Knowledge.
  • The questions in objective tests, except for the test of General English, will be bilingual i.e., English & Hindi.
  • Each test will be of 40 marks.
  • For these objective type tests of total 200 marks.
  • Candidates will be given a composite time of 2 Hours 15 minutes.
  • There will be negative marks for wrong answers in the Objective tests.
  • 1/4th mark will be deducted for each wrong answer.
  • Candidates will have to pass in each of the objective tests.
  • The passing marks in each of the tests will be decided by the Bank on the basis of the performance of all the competing candidates taken together in each test to a minimum required level.

Application Fee & Intimation Charges: For SC/ ST/ PWD and Ex-Servicemen: Rs. 100/- (Intimation Charges only) and For General & OBC candidates Rs. 600/-.
How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only. 
Important Dates:
  • Opening date of online registration 20-Nov-2014
  • Closing date of online registration 09-Dec-2014
  • Payment of fee (Online) 20-Nov-2014 to 09-Dec-2014
  • Payment of fee (Offline) 22-Nov-2014 to 11-Dec-2014
  • Recruitment examination will be conducted online tentatively in Jan/Feb 2015

Sunday, November 16, 2014

General Awareness, Marketing & Computer Awareness Practice Questions

1. India and which of the following countries have called for freedom of navigation in the South China
Sea recently?
1) China
2) Japan
3) Vietnam
4) Laos
5) Philippines

2. The Prime Minister launched 'Swavalamban Abhiyan', a new pro-poor initiative of the Government of?
1) Maharashtra
2) Gujarat
3) Rajasthan
4) Madhya Pradesh
5) Chhattisgarh

3. Who inaugurated the Nalanda University in Bihar in September 2014?
1) Sushma Swaraj
2) Narendra Modi
3) Smriti Irani
4) Pranab Mukherjee
5) Hamid Ansari

4. The Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Benjamin Netanyahu on the sidelines of the United Nations General Assembly in September 2014. He is the?
1) President of Israel
2) Prime Minister of Israel
3) President of Syria
4) Prime Minister of Syria
5) None of these

5. Yudh Abhyas 2014 is a combined military training exercise of India and?
1) Nepal
2) Singapore
3) Malaysia
4) USA
5) France

6. Which of the following declared 2014 as the Year of the Commando?
1) CRPF
2) NSG
3) BSF
4) ITBP
5) RAF

7. The Maulana Azad National Academy for Skills (MANAS) is being set up with its headquarters in?
1) New Delhi
2) Mumbai
3) Hyderabad
4) Pune
5) Lucknow

8. Nadir Patel has been appointed as which country's new High Commissioner to India?
1) UK
2) New Zealand
3) Canada
4) South Africa
5) None of these

9. Who replaced Arvind Mayaram as the new Finance Secretary?
1) Shaktikanta Das
2) G.S. Sandhu
3) Arvind Ranjan
4) Rajiv Mehrishi
5) None of these

10. Which of the following general insurance companies will provide an accident insurance cover of up to Rs. 1 lakh under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana?
1) Bajaj Allianz
2) ICICI Lombard
3) IFFCO-Tokio
4) Reliance
5) HDFC Ergo

11. MICR code consists of how many digits?
1) 9
2) 11
3) 8
4) 10
5) 12

12. In which of the following indexes India is ranked 135?
1) Global Competitiveness Index
2) Global Corruption Index
3) Human Development Index
4) Gender Gap Index
5) Global Peace Index

13. Expenditure Management Commission is headed by?
1) Deepak Mohanty
2) G. Padmanabhan
3) H.R. Khan
4) Bimal Jalan
5) None of these

14. Who was appointed as the UNICEF Goodwill Ambassador for South Asia for child nutrition in October 2014?
1) Sachin Tendulkar
2) Aamir Khan
3) Rahul Dravid
4) Priyanka Chopra
5) Deepika Padukone

15. Dr A. Sivathanu Pillai was presented which of the following awards in 2014?
1) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
2) Rajiv Gandhi Sadbhavana Award
3) Lal Bahadur Shastri National Award
4) Indira Gandhi National Integration Award
5) None of these

16. Which of the following days is observed as National Sports Day?
1) September 24
2) April 24
3) June 25
4) August 29
5) July 31

17. What is the minimum capital requirement for a new bank in the private sector?
1) Rs. 100 crore
2) Rs. 50 crore
3) Rs. 500 crore
4) Rs. 1000 crore
5) Rs. 1500 crore

18. Which country finished second in the medals tally at the 2014 Asian Games?
1) Japan
2) South Korea
3) Kazakhstan
4) India
5) Iran

19. Which of the following is the tag line of State Bank of Hyderabad?
1) The Bank with a Vision
2) Nation Banks on Us
3) Blending Modernity with Tradition
4) With you all the way
5) Modern Innovative Dependable

20. The idea of Small and Payments banks was proposed by a committee chaired by?
1) P.J. Nayak
2) Anand Sinha
3) Raghuram Rajan
4) Nachiket Mor
5) C. Rangarajan

21. The term of the non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council is?
1) One year
2) Two years
3) Three years
4) Four years
5) Five years

22. Which of the following has been selected as the SAARC Cultural Capital for a year beginning April 2015?
1) Bamiyan
2) Dhaka
3) New Delhi
4) Varanasi
5) Kathmandu

23. Which of the following has rejected independence and decided to stay with UK?
1) Wales
2) England
3) Scotland
4) Northern Ireland
5) None of these

24. Recep Tayyip Erdogan is the new President of?
1) Turkey
2) Lebanon
3) Iran
4) Iraq
5) Libya

25. The 2014 US Open tennis women's singles runner-up is?
1) Serena Williams
2) Caroline Wozniacki
3) Petra Kvitova
4) Maria Sharapova
5) Venus Williams

26. Which of the following is the most recent stage of marketing evolution?
1) Marketing department era
2) Production era
3) Sales era
4) Marketing company era
5) None of these

27. McDonald's and KFC are good examples of:
1) Distributors
2) Franchising
3) Merchant
4) Retailers
5) Sellers

28. _____is defined as the difference between the benefits a customer sees from a market offering and the costs of obtaining those benefits.
1) Customer value
2) Satisfaction scale
3) Profit margin
4) Competitive benefit
5) None of these

29. Users are able to create content and become more involved with a brand through:
1) Door to door
2) Online communities
3) Direct mail
4) Telemarketing
5) All of the above

30. This is part of the communication process and refers to the responses offered by receivers:
1) Encoding
2) Decoding
3) Transfer
4) Feedback
5) None of these

31. The quadrant of the Boston Consulting Group (BCG) matrix that represents both a high market share and a high rate of market growth includes the:
1) Cash cows
2) Question marks
3) Cats
4) Dogs
5) Stars

32. Which of the following elements is not part of Porter's Five Forces model for industry competitiveness?
1) Threat of substitutes
2) Threat of suppliers
3) Power of buyers
4) Threat from government
5) None of these

33. Which is NOT classified in buy classes?
1) New task
2) Information gathering
3) Modified re-buy
4) Straight re-buy
5) All of the above

34. The purchasing strategy is based on collaboration in research and development. This is called:
1) Bargainer
2) Clock wiser
3) Adaptation
4) Updater
5) None of these

35. What is the term used to describe the degree to which the data elicited in a study is replicated in a repeat study?
1) Replication
2) Pre-code
3) Reliability
4) Convenience
5) None of these

36. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
1) Platforms
2) Applications
3) Programs
4) Storage devices
5) CPU's

37. Smaller and less expensive PCbased servers are replacing ____ in many businesses.
1) supercomputers
2) clients
3) laptops
4) Users
5) Mainframes

38. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:
1) Digital divide
2) Internet divides
3) Web divides
4) Broadband divide
5) Cable divides

39. __ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
1) The platform
2) The operating system
3) Application software
4) The motherboard
5) Power socket

40. Programs designed to perform specific tasks is known as:
1) System software
2) Application software
3) Proprietary programs
4) Open source software
5) None of these

41. The operating system is the most common type of ___ software.
1) communication
2) application
3) system
4) word-processing
5) digital

42. ____ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
1) An instruction
2) Software
3) Hardware
4) Memory
5) A processor

43. Any part of the computer that you can physically touch is called:
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) A device
4) A peripheral
5) An application

44. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen?
1) Tab stop box
2) Left Indent
3) Right Indent
4) Center Indent
5) All of these are available on ruler

45. The radian of a number system:
1) Is variable
2) Has nothing to do with digit position value
3) Equals the number of its distinct counting digits
4) Is always an even number
5) None of these

46. Which of the following is not a type of page margin?
1) Left
2) Right
3) Center
4) Top
5) Bottom

47. The term MIPS refers to _____
1) millions of instructions per second
2) multiple instructions per second
3) megabytes of instructions per seconds
4) millions input processor set
5) multi-inductance processing system

48. Punched cards are associated with the name:
1) Leibniz
2) Jacquard
3) Pascal
4) Cabal
5) Hollerith

49. The ____ layer change bits onto electromagnetic signals.
1) Physical
2) Transport
3) Data Link
4) Presentation
5) All of the above

50. Which of the following is section of the CPU that selects, interprets and sees to the execution
of program instructions?
1) Memory
2) Register unit
3) Control unit
4) ALU
5) System unit

ANSWERS:
1) 3; 2) 2; 3) 1; 4) 2; 5) 4; 6) 2; 7) 1; 8) 3; 9) 4; 10) 5
11) 1, 12) 3 13) 4 14) 2 15) 3 16) 4 17) 3 18) 2 19) 5 20) 4
21) 2 22) 1 23) 3 24) 1 25) 2 26) 4 27) 2 28) 1 29) 2 30) 4
31) 5 32) 4 33) 2 34) 4 35) 3 36) 1 37) 5 38) 1 39) 2 40) 2
41) 3 42) 2 43) 1 44) 4 45) 3 46) 3 47) 1 48) 5 49) 1 50) 3

Sunday, November 9, 2014

General Awareness, Marketing & Computer Awareness Practice Questions for Bank Exams

1. Union Government constituted a committee which provides bankruptcy code for SMEs. The committee is headed by ......
1) Aravind Mayaram
2) Arun Jaitley
3) T. K. Vishwanathan
4) H. R. Khan
5) None of these

2. Sania Mirza and Cara Black clinched the WT finals women's doubles title in Singapore recently. Cara Black is a citizen of .......
1) Zimbabwe
2) Croatia
3) France
4) Sweden
5) USA

3. According to World Bank, India is expected to grow at what percent in current fiscal i.e. 2014-15?
1) 5.3%
2) 5.6%
3) 6.4%
4) 7%
5) None

4. The banks / institutions involved in a credit arrangement in the case of credit syndication are termed as .....
1) Members
2) Arrangers
3) Syndicators
4) Contributors
5) Negotiators

5. Who has been appointed as the chairman of Prasara Bharati Board for the term of three years?
1) Mrinal Pande
2) Bimal Julka
3) Markandeya Khatju
4) Surya Prakash
5) Dilip Trivedi

6. Who is the present Attorney General of India?
1) GE Vahanavati
2) Ranjith Kumar
3) Mukul Rohatgi
4) Justice H.L. Dattu
5) None of these

7. What is the expanded form of TDS, a term related to taxation in India?
1) Tax Deducted at Source
2) Tax Defaulted at Source
3) Tax Demanded at Source
4) Tax Differed at Source
5) None

8. Which of the following banks has recently joined hands with the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to introduce e-KYC (electronic Know Your Customer) norms in its branches? It is the second lender to introduce e-KYC in the country?
1) Axis Bank
2) HDFC Bank
3) ICICI Bank
4) Federal Bank
5) Kotak Mahindra

9. India's Rank in the latest "Ease of doing Business" report released by World Bank is ......
1) 142
2) 136
3) 132
4) 126
5) 122

10. A bank draft can be issued by a bank accepting cash provided the amount does not exceed .....
1) Rs.25,000
2) Rs.50,000
3) Rs.75,000
4) Rs.1,00,000
5) None

11. Restrict ion of 5 times usage of ATM from November 1st to be implemented in how many metros of India?
1) 7
2) 6
3) 5
4) 4
5) 3

12. Which of the following countries is declared free of Ebola by WHO recently?
1) Sudan
2) Sierra
3) Leone
4) Liberia
5) Nigeria

13. Which Indian state is to celebrate 2015 as 'Tourism Year'?
1) Maharashtra
2) Madhya Pradesh
3) Uttar Pradesh
4) Rajasthan
5) Kerala

14. Euro Money's Central Bank Governor of the year Award conferred on the Central Bank Governor of .....
1) Srilanka
2) China
3) USA
4) India
5) UK

15. The International day of Girl child is observed every year on.....
1) 11th December
2) 22nd December
3) 11th November
4) 22nd November
5) 11th October

16. Nobel Prize - 2014 in the category of literature is awarded to .....
1) Patrick Modiano
2) Kailash Sathyarthi
3) Malala Yousafzai
4) Both 2 & 3
5) Eric Betzig

17. 17th Asian Games concluded recently in Incheon, South Korea. How many Gold medals does India win?
1) 10
2) 11
3) 36
4) 9
5) 8

18. Who has been placed No.2 in 'The 100 Richest Indian List' by Forbes India?
1) Anil Ambani
2) Azim Premji
3) Dilip Sanghvi
4) Gautam Adani
5) Cyrus Mistry

19. Which of the following is not considered a valid proof of address while opening an account with a bank?
1) PAN card
2) Driving Licence
3) Electricity Bill
4) Voter ID
5) Passport

20. Which of the following movies is selected to represent India at Oscars?
1) Liar's Dice
2) Shahid
3) Baagh Milka Bhaagh
4) JGBU
5) The Lunch Box

21. Which one of the following is not a presales activity?
1) Lead Generation
2) Product Design
3) Sales Presentation
4) After-sales service
5) Scanning the yellow-pages

22. Corporate Loans are given to .....
1) Individuals
2) Blind Persons
3) Schools & Colleges
4) Proprietary Concern
5) Limited Companies

23. Financial Inclusion needs canvassing the Accounts of .....
1) Financial Institutions
2) NRIs
3) HNIs
4) Housewives
5) Persons from the weaker sections

24. Value added services means .....
1) Costlier products
2) More number of products
3) Additional services
4) At par services
5) New products

25. The USP of a current Account is .....
1) High minimum balance
2) No restrictions on transactions
3) No interest payable
4) Restricted deposits
5) Any number of accounts

26. Situation Analysis is useful for .....
1) SWOT Analysis
2) Analysis of sales persons performances
3) Analysis of capital markets
4) Staff placements
5) Area allocation

27. RTGS facility can be best canvassed among .....
1) Inter-state traders
2) Tailors
3) Carpenters
4) Politicians
5) Film stars

28. 'USP' of a product connotes .....
1) High selling features of a product
2) Drawbacks of product
3) New additions to a product
4) Efficient staff
5) Large Organization

29. CRM (Customer Relationship Management) is .....
1) a pre-sales activity
2) a tool for lead generation
3) an ongoing daily activity
4) the task of a DSA
5) customer complaints

30. Recurring Accounts can best be canvassed among .....
1) farmers
2) traders
3) salaried persons
4) minors
5) students

31. ELSS means .....
1) Entry Load Shares Scheme
2) Entry Load Starting Shares
3) Enquity Linked Savings Scheme
4) Enquity Linked Shares Sold
5) Employee Level Salary Scheme

32. Societies and Trusts are the target groups for opening .....
1) Current Accounts
2) Savings Accounts
3) Car Loan Accounts
4) Corporate Loan Accounts
5) Education Loan Accounts

33. A website address is a unique name that identifies a specific ........ on the web.
1) Web browser
2) PDA
3) Website
4) Link
5) None of these

34. A character of information is represented by a(n) .....
1) byte
2) bit
3) field
4) attribute
5) None

35. An example of a telecommunications device is a ......
1) Keyboard
2) mouse
3) printer
4) modem
5) None of these

36. ........ is a procedure that requires users to enter an identification code and a matching password.
1) paging
2) Logging on
3) Time-sharing
4) Multitasking
5) None

37. Which device is used as the standard pointing device in a Graphical User Environment?
1) Keyboard
2) Mouse
3) Joystick
4) Track ball
5) None of these

38. The simultaneous execution of two or more instructions is called .....
1) Sequential access
2) reduced instruction set computing
3) multiprocessing
4) disk mirroring
5) None of these

39. Multiprogramming system .....
1) are easier to develop than single programming systems
2) execute each job faster
3) execute more jobs in the same time period
4) use only one large mainframe computer
5) None of the above

40. Which device can understand difference between data and programs?
1) Input device
2) Output device
3) Memory
4) Microprocessor
5) None of the above

41. Which of the following devices have a limitation that we can only read it but cannot erase or modify it?
1) Tape drive
2) Hard disk
3) Compact disk
4) Floppy disk
5) None

42. Which of the following is not an output device?
1) Plotter
2) Printer
3) Monitor
4) Touch screen
5) None of the above

43. Data that is copied from an application is stored in the .....
1) driver
2) clipboard
3) terminal
4) prompt
5) None of the above

44. Every component of your computer is either .....
1) software or CPU/ RAM
2) input devices or output devices
3) application software or system software
4) hardware or software
5) None of the above

45. A collection of interrelated records is called a .....
1) management information system
2) spread sheet
3) database
4) text file
5) None of the above

46. Which of the following is the storage area within the computer itself which holds data only temporarily as the computer processes instructions?
1) The hard disk
2) Main memory
3) The control unit
4) Read-only memory
5) None of these

47. Codes consisting of bars or lines of varying widths or lengths that are computerreadable are known as .......
1) a bar code
2) an ASCII code
3) a magnetic tape
4) a light pen
5) None

48. A ...... contains specific rules and words that express the logical steps of an algorithm.
1) Programming language
2) Programming structure
3) Syntax
4) Logic chart
5) None

49. If a memory chip is volatile, it will ......
1) explode if exposed to high temperatures
2) lose its contents if current is turned off
3) be used for data storage only
4) be used to both read and write data
5) None of the above

50. ....... is the process of finding errors in software code.
1) compiling
2) assembling
3) interpreting
4) debugging
5) None

ANSWERS:
1-3, 2-1, 3-2, 4-2, 5-4, 6-3, 7-1, 8-2, 9-1 10-2
11-2, 12-5, 13-2, 14-4, 15-5, 16-1, 17-2, 18-3, 19-1, 20-1
21-4, 22-5, 23-1, 24-3, 25-2, 26-1, 27-1, 28-1, 29-1, 30-1
31-3, 32-4, 33-4, 34-2, 35-4, 36-2, 37-2, 38-3, 39-2, 40-4
41-1, 42-4, 43-2, 44-4, 45-3, 46-2, 47-1, 48-1, 49-2, 50-1.

MARKETING APTITUDE PRACTICE MCQs FOR BANK EXAMS

1. Marketing for promotion of business in Banks involves:
a) Better Customer Service
b) Customer needs identification
c) Customized products
d) Both a and c
e) a, b and c

2. Which is the pillar of Marketing Concept?
a) Financial Planning and control
b) Customer Orientation
c) Plant
d) Fixed Cost
e) Sales

3. Which of the following Bank is based on new marketing concept?
a) Union Bank of India
b) State Bank of India
c) UCO Bank
d) PNB
e) All of the above

4. Marketing Concept earns the profit with ___
a) Customer Satisfaction of Bank
b) Staff
c) Product
d) Building
e) ATM

5. Marketing is not required for one of the following products ____?
a) Export Business
b) Corporate Loan
c) Import Business
d) Credit Card Business
e) None of these

6. In terms of marketing what does "Motivation" means:
a) Satisfying Customer
b) Better communication skills
c) Sales Coaching
d) Market Research
e) Inspiring employees to perform better

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Service Industry?
a) Inseparability
b) Perceptibility
c) Intangibility
d) Heterogeneity
e) Perishability

8. What does the term CRM stands for in terms of marketing?
a) Consume resource manager
b) Current Report Manager
c) Customer relationship management
d) Cross relationship management
e) None of these

9. Find the correct statement:
a) Marketing is redundant in monopolistic companies
b) The performance of a salesperson depends on the amount of incentives paid
c) Marketing is influenced by peer performance
d) An increase in market shares indicates fall in business volume
e) A mission statement is part of the Company's Prospectus

10. Which of the following method is specifically used for increasing the short term sale of the goods?
a) Advertising
b) Sales Promotion
c) Publicity
d) Public Relations
e) None

11. The key point of Customer Delight is:
a) Selling maximum products
b) Employing maximum DSAs
c) Timely delivery of superior value to customers
d) Being rigid to changes
e) Adopting shot-term vision

12. Online Marketing is the function of which of the following?
a) Purchase section
b) Production Department
c) IT Department
d) Design Section
e) A collective function of all staff

13. Marketing channels means ___
a) delivery objects
b) sales target
c) delivery outlets
d) delivery boys
e) sales teams

14. Advertising for ____ is not allowed on T.V.
a) Liquor
b) Cigarettes
c) Both a and b
d) Soaps
e) None of these

15. In the context of globalization, BPO means ___
a) British Petroleum Organization
b) British Passport Office
c) Business Process Outsourcing
d) Business Process Orientation
e) All of the above

16. Acid Test of a brand is ___
a) Brand preference
b) Brand awareness
c) Brand loyalty
d) Brand equity
e) Brand acceptability

17. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is called as a/an __
a) Transaction
b) Exchange
c) Relationship
d) Value
e) None of these

18. A company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match
is known as its ___
a) Attribute competition
b) Attribute positioning
c) Brand image
d) Competitive advantage
e) Brand positioning

19. Joining with any other company to produce or market product for a specific project or service is
called ___
a) Direct exporting
b) Indirect exporting
c) Licensing
d) Joint-Venturing
e) None of these

20. A ___ is a name, term, sign, symbol or design or a combination of these that identifies the
Company Name which is selling of a product or service.
a) Product feature
b) Sponsorship
c) Brand
d) Logo
e) None of these

21. In marketing terms Attitude can best be defined as a ___
a) Rude behavior of Salesperson
b) Rude behavior of consumer
c) Mental state of consumer
d) Ego of the marketing executive
e) None of these

22. The long term objective of marketing is ___
a) Customer satisfaction
b) Profit maximization
c) Cost cutting
d) Profit maximization through customer satisfaction
e) None of these

23. A marketing technique where marketer plays a specific role in an untapped segment is called:
a) Mass Marketing
b) Niche marketing
c) Strategic Marketing
d) Communication Marketing
e) None of these

24. In Market segmentation which among the following is not an economic component?
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Both a and b
d) Income level
e) Taxes

25. Marketing is ____
a) an ancient concept
b) a modern concept
c) a continuous affair
d) a team effort
e) None of these

26. The sequence of a sales process is ___
a) Lead generation, call, presentation & sale
b) Sales, presentation, lead generation, call
c) Lead generation, call, sale & present station
d) There is no sequence required
e) None of these

27. Marketers should view packaging as a major strategic tool, especially for -
a) Consumer Convenience products
b) Industrial products
c) Consumer shopping products
d) Specialty products
e) None of these

28. What is M-marketing?
a) Mobile Marketing
b) Management Marketing
c) Model Marketing
d) Modern Marketing
e) Mind Marketing

29. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase "a good product will sell itself" is characteristic
of the ____ period.
a) Production
b) Sales
c) Marketing
d) Relationship
e) None of these

30. In the relationship marketing firms focus on ___ relationships with ___.
a) short term; customers and suppliers
b) long term; customers and suppliers
c) short term; customers
d) long term; customers
e) None of these

31. Political campaigns are generally examples of ___.
a) Cause marketing
b) Organization marketing
c) Event marketing
d) Personal marketing
e) None of these

32. Which of the following is NOT a part of 'Product Life Cycle'?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Inflation
e) Decline

33. ____ defined Marketing as 'Marketing is concerned with the people and activities involved in
the flow of goods and services from producer to consumer'.
a) American Marketing Association
b) UK institute of Marketing
c) University of Regina
d) Harvard Law School
e) University of Chicago

34. Delivery channel other than Bank counters are ___
a) ATM's
b) Internet Banking
c) Mobile Banking
d) Tele Banking
e) All of the above

35. In Marketing Mix 4 P's Imply:
a) Product, Price, Place, Promotion
b) Product, Price, Policy, Place
c) Place, People, Product, Promotion
d) All of the above
e) None of these

36. Innovation in marketing is same as:
a) Motivation
b) Perspiration
c) Aspiration
d) Creativity
e) Team work

37. Service marketing is the same as _
a) internet marketing
b) tele-marketing
c) internal marketing
d) relationship marketing
e) transaction marketing

38. 'Benchmark' means:
a) Products lined up on a bench
b) Salesman sitting on a bench
c) Setting standards
d) Marks on a bench
e) None of these

39. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to ___
a) globalization
b) increased competition
c) increased production
d) increased job opportunities
e) All of the above

40. Cross-selling is effective for which one of the following products?
a) Debit Cards
b) Savings Accounts
c) Internet Banking
d) Pension loans
e) Personal loans

ANSWERS:
1) e 2) b 3) e 4) a 5) b
6) e 7) b 8) c 9) e 10) b
11) c 12) e 13) c 14) b 15) c
16) c 17) b 18) d 19) d 20) c
21) c 22) d 23) b 24) c 25) a
26) a 27) a 28) a 29) a 30) b
31) d 32) d 33) a 34) e 35) a
36) d 37) d 38) c 39) b 40) b

Monday, October 13, 2014

New India Assurance Company Ltd. Recruitment of 509 Administrative Officer (Scale-I) Posts

Applications are invited for the post of Administrative Officer (Scale-I) in various discipline.
  1. Finance: 65 Posts
    Qualification: Chartered Accountant (ICAI)/ Cost Accountant (ICWA)/ MBA FINANCE*/ B.Com./ M.Com.
  2. Engineering: 25 Posts
    Qualification: B.Tech./ BE in Civil/ Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics & Communication Engineering.
  3. Legal: 40 Posts
    Qualification:Graduate in Law.
  4. Automobile Engineering: 30 Posts
    Qualification: BE/ B.Tech. in Automobile Engineering. Or Graduate in Mechanical Engineering with Diploma (at least one year duration) in Automobile Engineering.
  5. Generalist: 349 Posts
    Qualification: Graduate in any stream.
Age (As on 01/10/2014): 30 years

Application Fee (Non-Refundable): For SC/ ST/ PWD and female candidates Rs. 50/- and for all other candidates Rs. 600/-.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Important Dates:
  • Opening date of online registration 11-Oct-2014
  • Closing date of online registration 03-Nov-2014
  • Payment of application fees 03-Nov-2014
  • Dates of online examination 10-Jan-2014/ 11-Jan-2014.
  • Downloading of call letters for examination commences from 10 days prior to the date of examination (Tentative)

For more details, please visit: http://newindia.co.in
/downloads/Detailedadvertisementtobepublishedonwebsiteon10-10-2014.pdf
Applications are invited for the post of Administrative Officer (Scale-I) in various discipline.

  1. Finance: 65 Posts
    Qualification: Chartered Accountant (ICAI)/ Cost Accountant (ICWA)/ MBA FINANCE*/ B.Com./ M.Com.
  2. Engineering: 25 Posts
    Qualification: B.Tech./ BE in Civil/ Mechanical/ Electrical/ Electronics & Communication Engineering.
  3. Legal: 40 Posts
    Qualification:Graduate in Law.
  4. Automobile Engineering: 30 Posts
    Qualification: BE/ B.Tech. in Automobile Engineering. Or Graduate in Mechanical Engineering with Diploma (at least one year duration) in Automobile Engineering.
  5. Generalist: 349 Posts
    Qualification: Graduate in any stream.
Age (As on 01/10/2014): 30 years

Application Fee (Non-Refundable): For SC/ ST/ PWD and female candidates Rs. 50/- and for all other candidates Rs. 600/-.

How to Apply: Candidates can apply online only.

Important Dates:
  • Opening date of online registration 11-Oct-2014
  • Closing date of online registration 03-Nov-2014
  • Payment of application fees 03-Nov-2014
  • Dates of online examination 10-Jan-2014/ 11-Jan-2014.
  • Downloading of call letters for examination commences from 10 days prior to the date of examination (Tentative)

For more details, please visit: http://newindia.co.in
/downloads/Detailedadvertisementtobepublishedonwebsiteon10-10-2014.pdf